Don, If it were a perfect world and the two 100 Ohm loads were perfect (no reactances), then you will have a complete transfer of power from the 50 Ohm source divided equally into the two 100 Ohm loads without reflections.
Bill....WB6BNQ Don Otknow wrote: > Just for the record I meant pin as in the metal contact of a device, not a > PIN diode. So I need the impedance the pin "see's" (that of the transmission > line(s)) to be the same as the output impedance of the pin. > > Here's an extrapolation on the original question. If this is a high speed > digital signal, with frequency elements ranging from say 133 MHz to 1GHz, > then what I am really worried about, given the trace lengths (maybe 2 cm > each way) is the high frequency components getting reflected or not sent > down the line properly. If my source impedance from the the device is 50 > ohms, the lines are each 100 ohms, and the terminations at each end are 100 > ohms (probably AC terminated, but let's just say 100 ohms for simplicity), > am I setting myself up for the best possible signal integrity? > > Here's a primitive diagram of the setup > > 100 ohm line 100 ohm line > 100 ohm term. to gnd _________________________100 ohm termination to gnd > | > | > | 50 ohm source > | > > Donald > _______________________________________________ > time-nuts mailing list -- [email protected] > To unsubscribe, go to https://www.febo.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/time-nuts > and follow the instructions there. _______________________________________________ time-nuts mailing list -- [email protected] To unsubscribe, go to https://www.febo.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/time-nuts and follow the instructions there.
