Fortunately, many common statistical test are very robust. This helps when "we almost never meet the assumptions of the model (e.g., random sampling, normal populations, homogeneity of variance)." Regards, Hank
----------------------------------------------------------------------- Hank Goldstein, | HOME: (563) 556-2115 Department of Psychology | FAX: (563) 588-6789 Clarke College | EMAIL: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Dubuque, IA 52001 | HOME: 1835 Cannon St. Office: (563) 588-8111 | Dubuque, IA 52003-7904 ----------------------------------------------------------------------- "There is no cure for birth and death save to enjoy the interval." - George Santayana "The most wasted of all days is one without laughter." - e.e. cummings ----------------------------------------------------------------------- >>> [EMAIL PROTECTED] 11/13/02 11:15 AM >>> Hello-- This discussion has reinforced my belief that the classical statistical model is relied on way too much for psychological data analysis! For one thing, we almost never mee the assumptions of the model (e.g., random sampling, normal populations, homogeneity of variance). And, just as importantly, it is too damn confusing! (it's no wonder students dislike statistics). Regardless, a couple quick comments (and please correct me where you think necessary): >Martin J. Bourgeois wrote that: "an observed difference between means is more likely to be replicated when the p is .001 than when the p is .1. You can certainly calculate the probability of replicating a result with a given p value, and results with smaller p's are more likely to be replicated (yes, it has been supported by data)" Let's not forget that p values are GREATLY influenced by sample size. Given data sets with any means and variances, I can give you ANY p-value you want, simply by adding more subjects. So, is "likelihood of replication" in the context of holding sample size constant? Also, I'm not sure what is meant by an "observed difference". Is this the magnitude of difference (e.g., effect size), or just that there is a statistically significant difference? P-values are affected by the difference between means, sample size, and variance. So, by definition, larger "observed differences" result in smaller p-values, holding the other factors constant of course. But, is this difference more likely to be "replicated" than a smaller difference? Given equally good methods of random assignment to groups (or, in the rare case, random sampling), we should be equally likely to replicate the real state of the world, whatever it is. Or, am I missing something here? >Mike Scoles wrote: "A p-value is only meaningful if the null hypothesis is true." This is absolutely correct, but too often forgotten! In fact, many of our stats books actually teach this incorrectly. A p-value indicates the probability of obtaining your data, ASSUMING THAT THE NULL IS TRUE. In my opinion, this is the most important concept one needs to fully comprehend if they are to properly use techniques from the classical statistical model. A must-read article on this topic is: "On the Probability of Making Type I Errors" by Pollard and Richardson, Psychological Bulletin, 1987, 102: 159-163 Interesting discussion! Mike Tagler Department of Psychology Kansas State University --- You are currently subscribed to tips as: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To unsubscribe send a blank email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] --- You are currently subscribed to tips as: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To unsubscribe send a blank email to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
