> -----Original Message-----
> From: Stephen Black [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Sent: Wednesday, August 27, 2003 11:31 AM
> To: Teaching in the Psychological Sciences
> Subject: Re: IQ
> 
> On 27 Aug 2003, Allen Esterson wrote:
> >
> > It was not the correspondent's opinion I was concerned about, rather
I
> > was hoping for comments on Steven Rose's assertion that IQ tests
> > "serve the ideological commitment of testers". Or, to put it in less
> > ideological terms than Rose's, that such tests are flawed by class,
> > race, and gender biases, by being culture-bound, or [as another
Times
> > correspondent, cited below, claims] by the conflation of "learned
> > knowledge" with intelligence.
> 
> Now that Allen has clarified his interest, let me have a crack at
> answering it. I would say that the claim that conventional IQ tests
> are biased by being culture-bound is essentially correct. But that
> doesn't necessarily make them invalid. IQ tests were developed for a
> specific purpose: to predict specific kinds of performance in a
> particular kind of environment, notably school achievement and,
> perhaps, later success in life as measured by socio-economic status,
> occupation,  and other such indicators, in an urban, industrialized,
> Western and even white society.  For a relatively brief test
> administered at an early age, it does remarkably well at such
> predictions. But it doesn't claim to predict other kinds of
> performance in other kinds of environment.  It may be unfair to a kid
> from the ghetto compared with a middle-class one to ask whether he
> knows what a "sonata" is or to explain why cheques must be signed.
> But it turns out that for functioning successfully in an urban,
> industrialized, Western society, kids who know such stuff do better
> than those who don't. Make the test culture-fair and it loses its
> predictive power.
> 
> So IQ tests are undoubtedly biased but are still valuable for their
> narrowly-defined purpose. But use them to predict something else--
> say, survival in the high arctic or on the streets of inner-city
> Detroit-- and knowing about sonatas and cheques is unlikely to have
> much predictive power.
> 
> Stephen
> ______________________________________________________________
> Stephen L. Black, Ph.D.            tel:  (819) 822-9600 ext 2470
> Department of Psychology         fax:  (819) 822-9661
> Bishop's  University                 e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Lennoxville, QC  J1M 1Z7
> Canada
> 
> Dept web page at http://www.ubishops.ca/ccc/div/soc/psy
> TIPS discussion list for psychology teachers at
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> _________________________________________________________
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I'll go a step farther than Stephen. The term "bias" has a specific
meaning in this context - that the regression of a criterion measure
(e.g. grades in school, or success in life) on IQ scores (or other
standardized test) yields different slopes and/or y-intercepts for
different sub-groups. Here's an example.

Let's use SAT (test) and grades (criterion). For a large heterogeneous
group assume the relationship is linear, with GPA = 2 + .001875*SAT, and
this is used to predict GPA and admit/reject candidates. But unbeknownst
to the test givers the relationship for blue eyed people is really GPA =
.0025*SAT, while for brown eyed people it is really GPA = 2+ .00125*SAT
(intercepts are identical but slopes differ). If the SAT is used for the
heterogeneous group it is biased _against_ blue eyed people. A blue eyed
person, with SAT 500 would be predicted to have a (2 + .01875*500 =)
2.94 GPA. But this under-predicts their actual GPA which would be (2 +
.0025*500 =) 3.25. By the same token the SAT would be biased _in favor_
of brown eyed people because it over-predicts their actual GPA (2.94
versus 2.625). To my knowledge, current IQ or major achievement/aptitude
tests do not exhibit either slope or intercept bias for the customary
classification schemes (gender, race, etcetera). People are often
confused by this, because they use the term "bias" to describe
differences in _group means_ rather then the predictive relationship
between the test and the criterion. If we rank order the group means, we
see that black Americans are lower than American Indians, who are lower
than whites, who are lower than Oriental Americans and some Jewish
groups (reflecting, by way, the relative rates of success in western
society for these groups). But, the regression between the test and the
criterions, by themselves, do not differ enough for these groups to
justify calling current standardized tests biased against any group (if
anything, IQ tests slightly over predict criterion for black Americans,
but that's another story). It is likely our current tests are not biased
because of the rather intense scrutiny they currently undergo.

As to Stephen's point that the current IQ tests would not predict
success in Detroit or the artic, this is an open question. Meta-analyses
of IQ reveal surprisingly strong correlations with virtually every
profession studied, from the professional to the menial. It is possible,
but unlikely, that the fundamental role intelligence plays in such a
broad range of professions would not be operating in the day-to-day life
or inner cities or the artic. I realize the standard answer to these
questions is that "IQ predicts within our society" (with the caveat
"only in our society" mentally added), but I have a hard time finding
evidence or logic for the "only" part. 

Unfortunately, I am not familiar with Stephen Rose's writings. Whatever
his criticisms, they must be squared with the fundamental fact that
intelligence test scores (specifically, the 'g' component, not the stuff
we memorize in school for the tests) correlates strongly with real-world
success across a broad spectrum. Sorry if I repeated things earlier in
the history of this thread.


============================================
John W. Kulig
Professor of Psychology
Plymouth State College
Plymouth NH 03264
============================================
"Live simply that others may simply live" 
Contemporary saying.


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