jim clark wrote: > On Wed, 24 Sep 2003, Christopher D. Green wrote: > > > Assuming they are at least ordinal, you could code them 1, 2, > > 3 (or -56, 7, 1006, if you wanted to). > > Although true that coding is arbitrary with 2 groups, this does > not generalize to 3 groups. Depends on the hypothesized > underlying "distance" between groups 1 and 2 and groups 2 and 3.
Right you are. My mistake. I believe that as long as the codings were equidistant, the value of r would be equal to that using 1, 2, and 3 (e.g., -10, 0, 10). Is that your understanding? Best, -- Christopher D. Green Department of Psychology York University Toronto, Ontario M3J 1P3 Canada office: 416-736-5115 ext. 66164 fax: 416-736-5814 e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] WWW: http://www.yorku.ca/christo/ --- You are currently subscribed to tips as: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To unsubscribe send a blank email to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
