Although I can't address the "reasonable" question, here's a link that shows how it's done: http://www.uccs.edu/~lbecker/psy590/escalc3.htm
Hope this helps. -- Mark
At 10:31 AM 3/25/2004 -0800, you wrote:
Hi Tipsters-
I need some help in deciphering the latest issue of Psychological Science in the Public Interest (Vol. 4(3), 2003) on "The Influence of Media Violence on Youth". On page 84 the authors state,
"There are several commonly used measures of effect size, any of which can be applied to experimental, correlational and longitudinal types of studies. To provide a common metric for this discussion, we have converted all effect sizes to correlation coefficients (rs)."
I haven't seen this type of transform before. My questions are:
1. How is it done?
2. Is it a reasonable thing to do?
Given my biases on this subject I suspect that it will artificially inflate the effect sizes and make them look as if they were important when they are really trivial but I am willing to be corrected by someone more mathematically knowledgeable than I.
As always, your assistance is greatly appreciated.
-Don.
Don Allen
Psychology Dept.
Langara College
100 W. 49th
Vancouver, B.C. V5Y 2Z6
Canada
604-323-5871
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Mark A. Casteel, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Psychology
Penn State York
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