Tipsters,
A couple of questions from my ever-curious students:
1) Although some scientists claim that there is no predisposition for spoken
language (as opposed to gestural) my developmental psych students noticed in
one video of deaf children who were learning to sign, that the children were
vocalizing anyway. he students wondered whether speech might be the brain's
preferred mode of language on the basis of this. I pointed out that hearing
babies move their hands, too, although this doesn't necessarily indicate any
predisposition for gestural language. But I thought I would ask anyway, is
there any definitive answer available regarding the speech versus gestural
language preference in the human brain?
2) Is it possible for a person with bipolar illness to abuse his or her
prescribed mood stabilizing drug (in some way other than by not taking it)?
What would be the results of such abuse?
I am still hoping for an answer to my thalamus question, if anyone is
interested -- what is the location of the thalamus? Or is there no agreement
on this matter?
Hope you are all having a good weekend.
Nancy Melucci
PACE - LAHC
Tips abuser & Instructor, Harbor College
