> 1) Although some scientists claim that there is no predisposition for spoken
> language (as opposed to gestural) my developmental psych students noticed in
> one video of deaf children who were learning to sign, that the children were
> vocalizing anyway. he students wondered whether speech might be the brain's
> preferred mode of language on the basis of this. I pointed out that hearing
> babies move their hands, too, although this doesn't necessarily indicate any
> predisposition for gestural language. But I thought I would ask anyway, is
> there any definitive answer available regarding the speech versus gestural
> language preference in the human brain?
Good timing on this question - I just attended a sack lunch last Friday
with a hearing-impaired psychologist specializing in work with the
hearing-impaired/deaf. I don't know the specific answer to your question,
but do recall she indicated that children taught to sign could begin doing
so as early as six months, which apparently called for a revolution in the
way we conceptualized language development. Her name is Tovah Wax, and I
can get her contact information for you, if you like.
Take Care,
Matt
