Browsing the sex chapters of assorted biopsych texts, preparing for class
tomorrow, I came across a discrepancy I thought Tipsters might be able to
resolve. Rosenzweig et al states that Turner's syndrome is associated with
poorly developed but recognizable ovaries. Klein says that female development
proceeds up to a point, but that 2 X chromosomes are necessary for the ovaries
to produce eggs, so Turner's results in infertility. Carlson, on the other
hand, says that 2 X chromosomes are necessary to produce ovaries, thus
individuals with Turner's have no gonads at all. This sounds wrong to me. Is
there anthere total absence of ovarian function in Turner's (e.g. secondary sex
chars, menstruation). Anyone know the specifics of why 2 X are necessary for
ova production?
Linda Walsh
University of Northern Iowa
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
