DAVEH: > I probably hear about it much more than you do > because of my belief in the BofM. Most folks > don't have any interest in knowing if Jesus visited > the Americas, because it would be beyond the > scope of the Bible and just cause a lot of unanswerable > (without considering the pertinence of the BofM) > questions.
I have a very keen interest in this, as well as an interest in whether Jesus visited India before his adulthood ministry in Israel, but I'm not going to believe such theories on face value without checking them out. People can make up all kinds of stories. I think you might confuse "lack of interest" with "incredulous rejection." DaveH wrote: > Jesus said....... > "And other sheep I have which are not of this fold: them also > I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be > one fold and one shepherd." Jn 10:16 > ...........which I believe is referring to his visit recorded in the > BofM. The Lord says as much in 3Nep 15......... > [21] And verily I say unto you, that ye are they of whom I said: > Other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must > bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, > and one shepherd. > [22] And they understood me not, for they supposed it had been > the Gentiles; for they understood not that the Gentiles should > be converted through their preaching. > [23] And they understood me not that I said they shall hear my > voice; and they understood me not that the Gentiles should > not at any time hear my voice -- that I should not manifest myself > unto them save it were by the Holy Ghost. So does this mean that Joseph Smith never heard the voice of Jesus? Joe was a Gentile. According to this passage, it seems like it would be impossible for Joe Smith to have heard the voice of Jesus. DaveH wrote: > ...Now Laura, to me......that is why I disagree with your comment..... > "something doesn't compute". To me, it would be logical that the > Lord came to the House of Israel and visited more than just the > Jewish contingent of it located in the vicinity of Jerusalem while > ignoring those elsewhere. Jesus said in Matthew 15:24, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Mormons teach, "it would be logical that the Lord ... visited more than just the Jewish contingent ... [not] ignoring those elsewhere." I agree with Laura, that the Mormon teaching does not compute because it contradicts the teachings of Jesus as recorded in the Bible. How can the passage you quote above possibly make sense to you? Don't you recognize the anachronistic nature of this passage in the book of Mormon? Here you quote a passage from 3 Nephi, supposedly written around 34 A.D., that suggests that the Jewish apostles thought that Jesus meant the Gentiles would be converted. Yet, the apostles did not learn about the door opening to the Gentiles until several years later. How can you reconcile this without concluding that someone in the 19th century named Joseph Smith, who knew about the later events, wrote it into the passage? Where does Jesus make any such kind of statements within the four gospel accounts? Peace be with you. David Miller. ---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
