�

David Miller wrote:

> DAVEH:
> > I probably hear about it much more than you do
> > because of my belief in the BofM.� Most folks
> > don't have any interest in knowing if Jesus visited
> > the Americas, because it would be beyond the
> > scope of the Bible and just cause a lot of unanswerable
> > (without considering the pertinence of the BofM)
> > questions.
>
> I have a very keen interest in this,

DAVEH:� LOL......I think you are an odd Protestant duck, DavidM!

> as well as an interest in whether Jesus
> visited India before his adulthood ministry in Israel, but I'm not going to
> believe such theories on face value without checking them out.� People can
> make up all kinds of stories.� I think you might confuse "lack of interest"
> with "incredulous rejection."

DAVEH:� Perhaps, but I've heard Glenn say "I don't care about XXXXXXXXX yea or nea.�� 
I have absolutely no interest in it." too often to not think other Protestants feel 
the same way.

> DaveH wrote:
> > Jesus said.......
> > "And other sheep I have which are not of this fold: them also
> > I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be
> > one fold and one shepherd."� Jn 10:16
> > ...........which I believe is referring to his visit recorded in the
> > BofM.� The Lord says as much in 3Nep 15.........
> > [21] And verily I say unto you, that ye are they of whom I said:
> > Other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must
> > bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold,
> > and one shepherd.
> > [22] And they understood me not, for they supposed it had been
> > the Gentiles; for they understood not that the Gentiles should
> > be converted through their preaching.
> > [23] And they understood me not that I said they shall hear my
> > voice; and they understood me not that the Gentiles should
> > not at any time hear my voice -- that I should not manifest myself
> > unto them save it were by the Holy Ghost.
>
> So does this mean that Joseph Smith never heard the voice of Jesus?

DAVEH:� As you very well know, he claims to have heard the Lord.

> �Joe was
> a Gentile.� According to this passage, it seems like it would be impossible
> for Joe Smith to have heard the voice of Jesus.

DAVEH:� While JS heard his voice (as may have other gentiles), the other sheep not of 
that 'fold' Jesus was referring to was not a gentile fold as 3Nephi pointed out.� When 
Jesus made that comment, what 'others' outside the Israelite realm would have been
considered as sheep who were waiting for their shepherd?� Others of God's covenant 
would seemingly fit that description.� The Jews represented but one of 12 tribes, and 
would you not think the other tribes would have deserved to have been ministered to by
the Lord as well?� Would they not have been looking for (and expecting) their 
Messiah's forthcoming visit?

> DaveH wrote:
> > ...Now Laura, to me......that is why I disagree with your comment.....
> > "something doesn't compute".� To me, it would be logical that the
> > Lord came to the House of Israel and visited more than just the
> > Jewish contingent of it located in the vicinity of Jerusalem while
> > ignoring those elsewhere.
>
> Jesus said in Matthew 15:24, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the
> house of Israel."

DAVEH:� Which agrees with my explanation.� To paraphrase.......he was only sent (by 
his Father, IMO) to to the house of Israel.� Is that the way you understand that 
passage, DavidM?� Jesus didn't come to the gentiles.....he came to the house of 
Israel.�
He didn't go out of his way to preach to the gentiles when he was in mortality.� His 
ministry was directed to the Israelites.� The Jews were only a part of that ministry.

> �Mormons teach, "it would be logical that the Lord ...
> visited more than just the Jewish contingent ... [not] ignoring those
> elsewhere."� I agree with Laura, that the Mormon teaching does not compute
> because it contradicts the teachings of Jesus as recorded in the Bible.

DAVEH:� I guess I missed your point.� How does that contradict the Bible?� Jesus only 
came to the house of Israel, of which the Jews were only part.

> How can the passage you quote above possibly make sense to you?� Don't you

> recognize the anachronistic nature of this passage in the book of Mormon?
> Here you quote a passage from 3 Nephi, supposedly written around 34 A.D.,
> that suggests that the Jewish apostles thought that Jesus meant the Gentiles
> would be converted.� Yet, the apostles did not learn about the door opening
> to the Gentiles until several years later.

DAVEH:� I disagree........Mt 28:19's comment about preaching to "all nations" was not 
referring to gentile nations?� Mk 16:15 & 20 did not mean preaching to the gentiles?� 
And Lk 24:27......did that not infer they were to preach the gospel to all
nations?�� It seems to me the apostles knew about the Lord's wish to have the gospel 
spread to the gentiles just as he was about to depart this world and not sooner.� As 
Mt 15:24 demonstrates, it was not Jesus' mission to directly minister to the
gentiles, but that duty was relegated to the apostles upon Christ's death.

> �How can you reconcile this
> without concluding that someone in the 19th century named Joseph Smith, who
> knew about the later events, wrote it into the passage?� Where does Jesus
> make any such kind of statements within the four gospel accounts?

DAVEH:� You are losing me again on this, DavidM.� Which statement?� Furthermore, why 
do you think that ALL statements (doctrines or theological concepts) are (or should 
be) recorded in the Gospels?� If a concept is not found there, it hardly means that it
is irrelevant.

> Peace be with you.
> David Miller.

--
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Dave Hansen
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.langlitz.com
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
�

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ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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