David Miller wrote:

> Kevin wrote:
> > 1 Co 15:29 Else what shall they do which are baptized
> > for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they
> > then baptized for the dead?
> > Here Paul abruptly switches gear and refers to a group
> > outside of the Christians he had been refering to throughout
> > the whole chapter. He now uses the THIRD person pronoun "they",
> > since he is refering to PAGANs and Heathens.
>
> Excellent point.  The Mormons always seem to ignore this point.  I have
> not seen an answer to it.  Blaine and Dave, can you give some kind of
> answer to the language used here?  Why does he talk "we" up to this
> verse, then switch to "they" if he did not consider those who baptized
> for the dead to be in some other group?

DAVEH:  I don't see it that way at all.  I think it is more of a generic form of 
speech for something that was relatively commonly practiced.  What good would it do 
Paul to use a practice of paganism (or non Christianity) to teach a Christian 
principal?
It does not make logical sense.  Now speaking from the perspective that WE are all 
Christians, as much as some want to rationalize this passage, I don't think THEY can 
easily divorce THEMSELVES from an association of baptism for the dead and Christianity.



>   We know the Corinthians were baptized.  Who would argue
> that the Corinthians did not receive baptism?

DAVEH:  Which only makes the usage of the baptism for the dead reference so much the 
more relevant.  The Corinthians would relate to baptisms performed by other 
Christians, whereas it wouldn't make much sense if Paul was referring to non 
Christians who
baptized for the dead.

> Peace be with you.
> David Miller, Beverly Hills, Florida.
>

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