Law (Old testament) and to the testimony (New Testament)
Chris Barr <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
\o/ !HALALUYah! \o/Greetings again J.D. in the Matchless Name of YahShua !!YIKES! I find myself largely in agreement with David M. on this one (CRINGE).Y'all probably don't even know that the Masoretic text was INTENTIONALLY changed from the original text. First it was changed from the ancient Hebrew Paleo script and THEN the text was changed here and there MAINLY to cause conflict with prophetic Scriptures about Messiah and His deity.John 16:13 is THE KEY on this one ... David's right.As for Kevin ..."Is 8:20 if they speak not according to this word there is NO light in them"ROTFL!Isaiah 8:20 says, "TO THE LAW (that's TORAH) AND TO THE TESTIMONY: IF THEY SPEAK NOT ACCORDING TO THIS WORD, IT IS BECAUSE THERE IS NO LIGHT IN THEM.""THIS WORD" is TORAH ... that makes Kevin a prince of darkness along with most (?ALL?) Baptists, grace only, and "the law is done away" folks.Ahava b' YahShua(Love in The SAVIOUR)Baruch YHVH,Chris Barra servant of YHVH----- Original Message -----From: Kevin DeeganSent: 03/11/2004 7:06 PMSubject: RE: [TruthTalk] reliability of the HOLY BIBLEDavidM says The problem here is that when you read in the Bible, "the Word" or "the Word of God," you automatically think it is talking about the Bible. It
is not. The Bible did not even exist when these words were written
down.
I said: How about the BIBLE word "scripture" for those fanatics out there that are worried about biblicists & stuff.The church & the Apostles & tradition are AUTHORITIES with one caveat!They must align with the word!Is 8:20 if they speak not according to this word there is NO light in them2 Th 2:15 Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, OR our epistle.Holy men of God spoke - "inspiration"The word of God is "preserved" for us in the "SCRIPTURES"You contend that the "Scriptures" did not exist until, exactly when???????Before 100AD?Before 33ad?Before Jesus?Before the apostles?Before the prophets?Did it exist in David's day?Did it exist in Moses day?Please be specific.When did the scripture come into existance?David M said " "
David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:Dear Kevin and Judy,
We are having problems communicating because of two faulty assumptions.
Following are two assumptions that need to be examined:
1. Does God's Word equal The Bible?
My answer: No.
The Bible is God's Word, but God's Word is not the Bible. God's Word
includes much more than the Bible.
The problem here is that when you read in the Bible, "the Word" or "the
Word of God," you automatically think it is talking about the Bible. It
is not. The Bible did not even exist when these words were written
down.
David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:Kevin wrote:
> Are you trying to help out here?
> You know I am KJV all the way
I'm trying to understand what you believe.
There are different kinds of KJV guys. Are you 1611 KJV? Do you
believe that every jot and tittle of the 1611 KJV is God's perfect and
inerrant Word? Or do you believe that other revisions of the KJV are
also inerrant? Which KJV do you use?
Peace be with you.
David Miller, Beverly Hills, Florida.
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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