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Couple of comments for you to
consider:
1. Although "metanoia" in the Greek has
a broader meaning than our English word "repent," the context of "metanoia" in
the passages that deal with sin would be equivalent. The article you
shared basically made this same statement, but I think that author took a
little too much liberty in thinking that "sin" is not in view in many passages
where sin is not specifically mentioned. Clearly John the Baptist was
dealing with sin when we examine his sermon in Scripture and see what his answer
was concerning what they needed to do when they were being baptized by him unto
repentance.
2. The fact
that John's gospel does not use the word "repent" is not really all
that significant to me. In that gospel, we find the only two
occurrences in the whole Bible where Jesus tells the person, "sin no
more." John deals often with sin and the concept of remission of
sins. His first epistle also lacks the word "repent," but
who would deny that John deals extensively with the concept that those in
Christ do not continue in sin? Therefore, John includes the
concept of repentance in his writings without using the actual word.
3. James 4:6-10 describes the act
of repentance, the act of changing one's mind about sin, of turning from sin and
humbling oneself before God. It includes the idea of being sorry and
mournful, so the concept of "penitence" is not just some Catholic invention, but
it is Biblical and associated with repentance from sin and toward
God.
Peace be with you.
David Miller. |
