And so we see that the covenant with Abraham was fulfilled not by Abraham but by his Representative, Jesus Christ, and in this the covenant is unilateral in that God's promise was contingent upon God's fulfillment of the covenant -- enter Emanuel.
Thanks for the explanation, Bill. I have seen this analysis before, but the only unusual thing here in my opinion is that Abraham and God did not pass between the pieces at the same time. Frankly, I would be surprised if they had passed through at the same time. The way it happened does not, in my mind, necessitate applying the term "unilateral" to the covenant. Using the term "unilateral" implies that it is all God and nothing on the part of man. Such a view is not accurate regarding the Abrahamic covenant. One of the reasons God called Abraham his friend was because of his faith. We see that faith expressed in Abraham preparing the animals for the covenant. We see God require an unusual participation on the part of Abraham in regards to circumcision of not only him, but his entire family and servants. So while you might find something interesting in this Gen. 15 passage, how can it possibly justify the term "unilateral covenant."?
Note that I certainly see the Messiancic references that you do, and the implication of God taking upon himself some of the covenant responsibilities of man by himself becoming man, but I still am uncomfortable with the phrase, "unilateral covenant." I truly think it is misapplied and leads to erroneous ideas of God's covenant with us.
I recently read an article that said marriage was a unilateral covenant and not a bilateral contract. Would you agree with that idea too?
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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