Dave Hansen wrote:
> Perry mentioned that it was referring to judges
> who judge in behalf of God (I hope I've got that
> right, Perry). But if that were the case, I don't
> understand why Jesus would refer to theos
> (Jn 10:34&35), suggesting a deity to be worshiped,
> to be used in his defense.
The Greek word "theos" that Jesus uses is translating the Hebrew word
"Elohim" from Psalm 82:6 ("ye are gods"). This Hebrew word is translated
over 2500 times in the KJV as "god" or "gods," but sometimes it also is
translated as "angels" or "judges." Consider the following Hebrew passages
where the word Elohim is translated as judges or judge:
Exodus 21:5-6
(5) And if the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my
children; I will not go out free:
(6) Then his master shall bring him unto the judges [Elohim]; he shall also
bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his
ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
Exodus 22:7-9
(7) If a man shall deliver unto his neighbour money or stuff to keep, and it
be stolen out of the man's house; if the thief be found, let him pay double.
(8) If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought
unto the judges [Elohim], to see whether he have put his hand unto his
neighbour's goods.
(9) For all manner of trespass, whether it be for ox, for ass, for sheep,
for raiment, or for any manner of lost thing, which another challengeth to
be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the judges [Elohim]; and
whom the judges [Elohim] shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his
neighbour.
1 Samuel 2:22-25
(22) Now Eli was very old, and heard all that his sons did unto all Israel;
and how they lay with the women that assembled at the door of the tabernacle
of the congregation.
(23) And he said unto them, Why do ye such things? for I hear of your evil
dealings by all this people.
(24) Nay, my sons; for it is no good report that I hear: ye make the LORD'S
people to transgress.
(25) If one man sin against another, the judge [Elohim] shall judge him: but
if a man sin against the LORD, who shall intreat for him? Notwithstanding
they hearkened not unto the voice of their father, because the LORD would
slay them.
As you can see here, a Hebrew word for God, "Elohim," is used in the context
of men who are judges. This is the basis by which someone might say that
Psalm 82:6 refers to men who are judges.
It seems very logical to me that Jesus would be reading this passage in this
way that Perry teaches, because Jesus said, "if he called them gods, UNTO
WHOM THE WORD OF GOD CAME." The Word of God did not come unto God (Elohim or
Theos) in heaven. Rather, the Word of God came unto men. So if Scripture,
which cannot be broken, applies this term God (Elohim or Theos) to men who
are judges, why would they find him guilty of blasphemy for saying that he
was the son of God? In other words, Jesus was not going beyond the bounds
of Scripture by applying the term "son of God" to himself.
I hope this helps.
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know
how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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