No kidding. The point (are you avoiding or did you miss) is why did they (Jesus Paul Peter)quote the words that were not found in the text?
They were inserted in the KJV as italics to show (honesty) that they were not in the text of the hebrew but the greek quotes what is not there in the Hebrew or put another way Jesus quoted the KJV!
I write with a big smile on my face and ask this question -- can you give me an example of an italicized word, inserted into the text in 1611 and quoted by a NT writer 1550 years earlier?
Jesus quoted the KJV .
I think I will have a beer. This is an absolute riot. Do you have any idea just how silly this sounds? I am saving this one. It is a classic. Would someone tell me how I should respond. Seriously. I haven't a clue.
JD
