The words ARE in the greek but not in the hebrew & you can not explain it
and why does your beloved TEXT take out every word of God in Luke 4:4
Man does not live by bread alone!
If the KJV was good enough for Jesus then it is good enough for me.
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
In a message dated 3/3/2005 10:13:30 PM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
No kidding. The point (are you avoiding or did you miss) is why did they (Jesus Paul Peter)quote the words that were not found in the text?
They were inserted in the KJV as italics to show (honesty) that they were not in the text of the hebrew but the greek quotes what is not there in the Hebrew or put another way Jesus quoted the KJV!
I write with a big smile on my face and ask this question -- can you give me an example of an italicized word, inserted into the text in 1611 and quoted by a NT writer 1550 years earlier?
Jesus quoted the KJV .
I think I will have a beer. This is an absolute riot. Do you have any idea just how silly this sounds? I am saving this one. It is a classic. Would someone tell me how I should respond. Seriously. I haven't a clue.
JD
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