jt: Did Moses have the originals?  Didn't he break the original Law tablet?
And what of the ark of the Covenant?  Was the Law in there a copy or the original...?
Did Jesus cut them any slack because all they had was copies and the Scribes just might
have left out a word or put one in that didn't belong there? Nah!  There were no excuses.
 
He told them "How can ye believe which receive honor one of another and seek not the
honor that coes from God only?" (sounds just like orthodoxy doesn't it?) "For had you
believed Moses, you would have believed me, for he wrote of me. But if you believe not his
writings, how shall you believe my words? (original autographs didn't mean squat)
(John 5:44,46,47)
 
and later he says to God's people  "He that is of God heareth God's words; ye therefore
hear them not because you are not of God" (John 8:47)
 
 
 
On Fri, 4 Mar 2005 07:11:39 -0800 (PST) Kevin Deegan <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
God does not use "originals" in His word either
Did the Apostles carry the originals on their persons?

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Kevin:

do unequivically hold to Plenary Verbal Inspiration as the Church of all ages has held
VPI has nothing to do with the Originals Never has.



John:

Of course not  --  because we never have had the originals. 


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