The expansion of the ministry (to the
Gentiles) is first given to Peter in a vision sometime after the
cross.
Peter was
sent to the house of Cornelius who was a worshipper who gave alms and
who God knew about. However
God was never completely exclusive and Jesus confronted the Jews
with the fact that God passed over a lot of widows in Israel and Elijah was
sent to one in the city of Sidon; also there were many lepers in Israel and
Elijah healed Naaman a Syrian, (because the Jews were covenant breakers)
which made the Jews so angry they wanted to push him off the brow of a hill.
No
kidding -------- but that does not change the fact
of His (Chrsit) statement that His ministry was one to the Jew and not
the Gentile AND JESUS
SAID, I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL
MATT 10:24. Deal with it.
I'm trying - Matt 10:24 says "A
disciple is not above his teacher, nor a servant above his master" - did you
mean to include that? and Mark 10:24 is about how hard it is for those who
have riches to enter the Kingdom.
`
When Jesus sends his 12 out on mission, they are sent to the Jews
and "not to the Gentiles ) Matt 10:5,6.
Lost sheep (covenant breakers) of the house of
Israel.
No kidding.
Are you being patronizing
JD?
In Matt 15:24, Christ tells us that His
mission is to the Jews and not to anyone else."
He said healing was the children's bread (children of the
covenant) but did he or did he not heal the woman's daughter?
HE SAID I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF
ISRAEL.
He said that but he healed the
daughter of a Syrian woman because of her faith and the Jews rejected Him
because of their unbelief.... so God is not as legalistic and locked in
about this as you are it seems.
Why? How can this be? Because of
John 4:7 -- "salvation is of the Jews."
Only because God's oracles
were entrusted to them preserved by them for the rest of us; salvation is
FOR whosoever will come.
Of course and why are arguing with me about
this, again?
Because you make it sound as though
you have a Jew fixation or something of that sort.
When Christ speaks of the "few there be" who will
accept the salvation offered to them,
He is speaking to the Jews and of the Jews.
No His Words are
for every generation even for those who are far off. As many as
God the Father sends Him.
Read the parable of
the sower JD. The field is the world.
I don't know if I have used the word
"exclusive" in anything I have written. If I have, that was a
mistake.
That does not change the fact that He came to
the Jew only His words not mine.
For the first 3 1/2yrs of
His ministry but His Words are eternal, they will judge us in the last
day (Jn 12:48) and they are not for Jews only because in Him there is no
Jew, Greek, bond, or free.
Does He intend to included all of mankind?
Absolutely -- and He does.
Glad he has your permission
JD
this is all you have to say in making your
point and you wonder why I see rebellion and stubbornness
in you, Judy.
But there is a politic to this
inclusion that began with Adam and came down to the world through
Israel.
God is
not and never has been political; He is Sovereign Lord over all
mankind.
What ?? !! Do you think I am accusing
Him of running for mayor ??!!!
But, o.k., I will use a different
word - PROCESS.
The picture of the uncountable multitudes in Rev. 7 is a blessed
hope for us all and is UNDENIABLE,
folks (in a meaningful sense of the
word.)
If this is where you were headed with all
that rhetoric about Jews JD - you missed the mark BIG TIME
(emphasis)
Judgment is for
all who are lawless, disobedient, stiff necked, stubborn, beer drinking, and
rebellious.
Der-ahh !!
I should get three points for this slam
dunk !!!! Pastor Smithson
In your dreams
maybe.....
