In a message dated 4/21/2005 4:20:33 AM Pacific Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

Or the Greek word  phileo� or agapao�!
So the words are Imprecise and that is why we need scholars to be the high priests of Gods words to threw us a scrap once in a while.



Without scholars, you wouldn't have your KJV.  By the way  --  agapao is a work horse word and less "precise"  than "phileo" or "storge."   As you may know,  "precise" really isn't a good word in this context.  But wasn't it you, Deegan, who was arguing AGAINST the "precise" commentary for these two words?    Of course it was    ---    so now,  are we changing course in the middle of the stream, just to continue the argument.   Anyway,  agapao is used, as a matter of fact, in a number of differing ways   (including on rare occasion, sexual love).   When context is considered,  the meaning can be very "precise."

I, personally, do not believe that Peter was offering Christ a lesser love when he answered back with "phileo."   In Peter's mind, no doubt,  he was presenting Christ with a word that better described his feelings for the Christ..   If there was NO difference at all between the two words,   why the exchange?  

JD



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