[TruthTalk] The Humanity of Jesus

[Judy Taylor]

From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Hi Judy.  I would like to continue our dialogue about the humanity of Jesus. We discussed Romans 8:3 before.   Romans 8:2-4 (2) For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death. (3) For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: (4) That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.   In past discussion, you say that the word "likeness" here means like but not the same as.  I pointed out how this same word is used in Phil. 2:7 where it says he was made in the likeness of men.  In this Philippians passage, I would not argue that Jesus is similar to a man in appearance but is not really a man.  I believe that you had agreed with me that Jesus was indeed truly a man.   jt: I haven't ever meant that he was not really a man; just that he was not born with "inherited iniquity" through the fathers because when he came in the flesh his father was God the Holy Spirit.   So although the word "likeness" might mean what you say, not the same as but only a superficial resemblance, it also could mean the in the form of.    jt: It was what was working on the inside rather than what he was in the outward form of.  The same word is used in Acts where these ppl thought Paul and Silas were their pagan gods in the form of men.   If he came in the likeness of men, he was a man, and if he came in the likeness of sinful flesh, then he had sinful, corruptible flesh.  My question to you is this.  Is it possible for the passage to mean this when taken alone?    jt: Why do you automatically assume that if He had flesh it had to be sinful, corrupted flesh?  I see some contradictions because by the same token you say that babies are not born in sin until they actually perform a sin.  Scripture says otherwise. David said he was brought forth in iniquity and in sin his mother conceived him.  But at birth Jesus is called "that holy thing" which is something none of the rest of us can lay claim to.   I'm not asking if you agree that it means this right now.  I am only asking you if this is a possible interpretation of this passage if nothing else were considered?  I am wondering if I would show you from other passages in the Bible that this is how this passage should be read, if it might be possible for you to change your mind about how you presently interpret this word "likeness."   I don't know David. Look at the description of Jesus as a child in Luke 2:40, 52 To begin with He was given a full measure of the Holy Spirit from his mother's womb (not true for any of us) and we are told "And the child gres and became strong in spirit, filled with wisdom and the grace of God was upon Him ... V52 "And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men"  Then above and beyond this he was anointed by the Holy Spirit for ministry at His baptism in the Jordan River. Now what do you see in any of this that likens Him to the rest of humanity.  We are born rebels with hearts prone to deceitfulness and there is a different spiritual kingdom with ground and authority over us.  judyt