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Which conveniently aligns the words of Jesus in
Matt 5:48 with doctrines that teach that noone can be holy or perfect even in
Christ until the last trump when they will be miraculously changed in the
twinkling of an eye (or something like that).
Judy, let's just say for the sake of argument, that the original
Greek was in the present imperative (in other words, it was a command: "Be . .
."), would it be okay for me to translate it into a future indicative, just
because it does not fit with my theology?
Bill
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