----- Original Message -----
Sent: Tuesday, November 22, 2005 9:37
AM
Subject: Re: Fw: [TruthTalk]
corrector/revisor
So the two different translations are BOTH True?
You see the same meaning conveyed by:
NIV because by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are
being made holy.
KJV For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them
that are sanctified.
One transaction is complete One is not, which for
you?
Yet even in the NIV the action being performed (in the 1st
part of the verse) is already complete "one sacrifice
he has made perfect" and is MADE Perfect!
Shouldn't it be translated "BEING MADE PERFECT"?
And of course this is a Grievious ERROR inthe
KJV?
Which by the way that was the initial
ISSUE.
David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Kevin
wrote:
> I would like to know where you found the word
> BEING
in the text other than the MOOD which
> is an ENDING not another
word.
In Greek, it is much more common to make a single word convey
the mood and
tense and even object, but in English we tend to add more
words. The
authority to add "being" is the same authority for adding
"THEM THAT ARE."
It is something thought to be communicated by the
ending of the Greek text.
This is why the KJV does not put these words
in italics.
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
----------
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