Bill wrote:
> Sure, a present tense verb conveys an action that
> is not yet complete; in other words, it is not yet a
> past tense. As I said before, it is unfortunate that
> the KJV misled you here, understandable though
> it may be, but now you need to move on to accepting
> that the original language posits this participle as a
> present passive.

Present tense does not necessarily indicate incomplete action.  If I say, 
"Bill is happy," this does not mean that Bill is incomplete in his 
happiness.

The KJV translates the Heb. 10:14 passage as "are sanctified," which is a 
present passive construction, just like the Greek.  It has not misled 
anyone.  It is the reader who might be misled by whatever he reads into the 
syntax used.

Peace be with you.
David Miller. 

----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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