1. Matt 1:23 gives us the word "Immanuel" as a
name for Jesus. Most significantly, the Apostle
Matthew gives us the meaning of this word, an
apostolic definition, if you will
----------- God with us. This
single sentence should end the controversry, but, of
course, people will choose to follow their bias.
Matthew did not come up with it
JD; he only repeats the words of the prophet Isaiah (Is
9:6,7) and since the Holy Spirit is also God
according to your trinitarian belief - what are you trying
to say here?
2. Secondly, Col 1:19-20 tells us that
Christ reconciled all thing UNTO HIMSELF. If Christ
were only the representative of God, there would be
no value in having drawn all thing, on the earth and in
the heaves unto Himself. This passage makes sense
only as one admits to the deity of the incarnate
Christ -- we should not forget that the act of
reconciliation was performed in the body of His
flesh.
Read it again and focus on Vs.19;
Christ is reconciling all things to the Father - this is
not about HIMSELF.
3. John 17:5 establishes the fact that the Son
shared the glory of the Father before the
foundations of the world, estalishing His evternity
as the Son.
John also writes "in the
beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the
Word was God - which
establishes his eternity as the
Word of God.
4. In view of the fact that "Only begotten" is
a term that actually means "only unique" and has nothing
to do with the birth or appointment of Christ, there
is no biblical hint that Christ became the Son of
God. He is, therefore, the eternal Son,
never becoming -- always being.
The word "begotten" means just
what it says JD. It is also used in Gen 5:4; Lev
18:11, Deu 23:8, John 1:14 and Acts 13:33. The meaning in
these verses is plain. It is a mystery to me why you
would want to change it to "unique" unless it is to
conform to some doctrine outside the scope of God's Word
and the faith ONCE delivered to the saints.
5. John - chapter one - teaches us that the
Logos and the Jesus, the Son, are one and the same:
"He was in the world (incarnation !!) and the world
was made by Him and the world did not know Him."
What makes you think John
1 :10 references the "incarnation"? John had
just said "he is the light who gives light to every man"
and long before any incarnation it is written "Thy Word is
a lamp unto my feet and a light unto my path"
Jesus is the Word spoken through
the prophets and rejected by God's covenant
people.
6. Matt 16:16 has Peter confessing that
Jesus is the Christ, the Son of the living God," a
wonderful statement that looses its vaule if it means
"thou are the Christ , the Holy Representative of the
living God."
Christ? Means "anointed
one" JD.
Hoping to help.
jd
