n Thu, Nov 7, 2013 at 12:57 AM, JW <[email protected]> wrote:

> > I think Doug's original question still stands unanswered: How did the
> > original rule ever serve the public interest? Similarly, how does getting
> > rid of the rule serve the public interest?
>
> I doubt the original rule had anything to do with the viewing public's
> interest. It's about making sure that entities that buy "exclusive" rights
> to show sporting events don't have to compete with other entities, which
> serves the broadcaster and team/league that sells them the rights..
>
> Well, I think that is the point. The FCC was implying that the rule was
originally in the public interest, but that seems clearly to be a joke.

> It seems like the idea is that the rule serves the public interest by
> > making sure that cable operators do not have an unfair advantage vs over
> > the air broadcasters; this ensures that sports programing will continue
> to
> > be available over the air.
>
> As Joe Hass has pointed more than once, these rules do no such thing. Many
> (non-football) teams have no non-cable deal for local broadcasts, so that
> the only games available over the air are national network games.
>

But the rule does not apply only to the NFL - it applies to any sporting
even that is locally blacked out, even if it is just by contractual
agreement.

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