Re: Hume, induction, and probability

[irinar]

>
>>When you apply Bayes rule, you are assuming that future outcomes will be
>>drawn from the same distribution as past outcomes, i.e. you are assuming
>>that induction works.
>
>Not true!  ALL I am assuming is basic, timeless Bayes Rule.
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But isn't it strange to reason about causes and effects without 
the notion of time? Isn't it a major gap in Bayesian (causal!)
networks that the notion of time is not the part of the formalism?




Irina Rish