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I was wondering why Unicode 4.0 refers to one of
the dependent vowel signs composed with nikahit (aka "am" pp. 278-279) as "om"
while the other one is "aam".
If "aam" has a name based on the other character
used in the composite vowel sign (U+17B6 AA), an "etymological" name distant
from its prononciation [ɔ́ɘm], why
would not "om" be called "um" since it is composed with U+17BB whose value is U
?
This is incidentally closer to the transliteration in Daniels & Bright, p. 469 :
« ʔum ». This is also the transliteration "uM" used on top of page 8
here
P. A.
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- RE: [OT] Why is the Khmer om sign called om and no... Patrick Andries
- RE: [OT] Why is the Khmer om sign called om a... Sue and Maurice Bauhahn
- Re: [OT] Why is the Khmer om sign called ... Patrick Andries

