> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf > Of Dean Snyder
> >Negative proofs are kind of hard. I've been unable to find > >anything which states that the ancient Jews considered > >Phoenician and Hebrew to be the same script. If it were > >easily found, I'd've found it already. In fairness, I've also > >tried to find anything documenting that the ancient Jews > >specifically considered Phoenician and Hebrew to be > >separate scripts. Maybe it was such a "no-brainer" (either > >way) for them that they never recorded their thoughts on > >the subject. Or, maybe nothing survived. Or, maybe > >nothing's been brought to light yet. > > > >Or, maybe somebody knows better? > > The evidence for this of which I am aware includes the contemporaneous > use of both diascripts in ancient Judah So, the question is whether contemporaneous use within a single community suggests that they were viewed as the same or distinct. Either is possible. If they were considered "font" variants, then you might expect to see different documents using one or the other, or see different elements within a single document using one or the other. But if you see documents containing equivalent content repeated in each, then that might well suggest they were viewed as distinct. Peter Peter Constable Globalization Infrastructure and Font Technologies Microsoft Windows Division
