Curtis Clark wrote:
(As a rhetorical device,) I have to say that I'm puzzled by this. All
I've seemed to hear from Semiticists is that Phoenician is not a
separate script. How, then, can these same Semiticists be the major
users of something that doesn't exist?
And if they continue to encode "Phoenician" script text using Hebrew
characters (even after any separate Phoenician characters get encoded)
~ which is they say they want to do (and they will always be free to do)
~ they will* never* be users of Unicode Phoenician script and so they
have absolutely nothing to worry about. ;-)
- Chris
