> (As a rhetorical device,) I have to say that I'm puzzled by this. All > I've seemed to hear from Semiticists is that Phoenician is not a > separate script. How, then, can these same Semiticists be the major > users of something that doesn't exist?
There's a big difference between Phoenician not being a separate script from those already encoded in Unicode, and it not existing. It certainly exists as a script variant, like Fraktur. In that sense, treating Phoenician as a script variant of Hebrew is a big win for many of the users of the script, since they would have a hard time deciphering the bizarre (to them) script variant but have no problem reading texts originally written in it in different fonts. -- ___________________________________________________________ Sign-up for Ads Free at Mail.com http://promo.mail.com/adsfreejump.htm
