My guess is that it does apply to hand tools, as the difference is
trivial. When you multiply inches by enough (63360 in one mile), then
the difference is probably enough to be a problem, and so US surveying
has a problem. I don’t know how they handled that in England.
Pedantic? I?
On 17/03/12 2:14 PM, James Knott wrote:
man_without_clue wrote:
On 03/17/2012 11:30 AM, Mark Simon wrote:
FYI, 1 inch is exactly 2.54 cm. The inch was redefined in 1959 as
derived from the metric system.
Just being pedantic :]
Oh, I didn't know that!
Does that apply to machine hand tools also?
Yes, he pedantic about them too. ;-)
Actually, that definition of the inch applies to everything but U.S.
surveying and that exception only because so many of the surveys were
done prior to 1959.
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Mark Simon
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