Dear All,
In the help information for the FFT function I find that, regarding the "inverse" FFT, fft(x,1), the formula is n x(k) = SUM(a(m)*exp(2*%i*%pi*(m-1)*(k-1)/n) m=1 But this is not the inverse FFT since it lacks the required 1/n factor; however, fft(fft(a,-1),1) indeed returns a. So the procedure seems to be mistakenly described in the help information. Interestingly, the fftw3 documentation, http://www.fftw.org/fftw3.pdf, gives, on page 42, the same formula but it indicates it is an unnormalized transform. Would you please clarify? Regards, Federico Miyara --- El software de antivirus Avast ha analizado este correo electrónico en busca de virus. https://www.avast.com/antivirus
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