2001-09-09

I think you misunderstood my point.  OK, one might expect someone to say,
for example, that the Mexicans pay 20 % less than Americans, meaning they
pay 80 % of the cost Americans pay.  If Americans, pay 10 $ for a
prescription, a Mexican would only pay 8 $ for the same drug.

Normally, if someone told me they earned 100 % less than me in pay, I would
conclude they earn zero.  If someone told me they earned 102 % less in pay,
I would assume they were paying the equivalent of 2 % of my pay back  to
their employer.  This doesn't make sense, so I thought the number had
another meaning.

I'm sure something was "lost in the translation".  That what was being said
was that Americans pay 2 % more than Mexicans, thus  Americans pay 102 % of
what Mexicans pay.  Or, 1.02 times more.  If someone took this information
and reversed the wording, it would come out that Mexicans pay 1.02 times
less or 102 % less.  The meaning being that they pay 1/1.02 of what
Americans pay, which is 0.98 or 98 % of what Americans pay.  They should
have said 2 % less, if that is what they meant.

2 % less doesn't sound like much, so maybe it was suppose to be 20 %.  If
they pay 20 % less, then they are paying 80 % of, as I mentioned above.  I
hope this is clearer.

John




----- Original Message -----
From: "Daniel Bishop" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "U.S. Metric Association" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Sunday, 2001-09-09 15:02
Subject: [USMA:15163] Re: Fwd: Innumerate Journalists


> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]] On
> Behalf Of kilopascal
> Sent: Sunday, September 09, 2001 11:58
> To: U.S. Metric Association
> Subject: [USMA:15154] Re: Fwd: Innumerate Journalists
>
> > The one part that may
> > be confusing to some is: .....Columnist Molly Ivins cites a
> congressional
> > finding that Mexicans pay "102 percent less" than Americans pay for
> > prescription drugs. How do they do that?.....  Well, 102 % less, is
> the
> > same as 1.02 times less. or 98 %, which really isn't that much less.
>
> I disagree with your definition.  By this logic, someone who earns "1%
> less than" me would be able to buy a new luxury car every week!
>
>
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