Posted by Eugene Volokh:
Silly supposed math conundrum:

   I'm amazed how often people think there's some puzzle about whether
   zero is odd or even. (Do [1]a google search on "is zero even" and
   you'll see.) The question has even made its way into news stories,
   usually when some government institutes "odd-even" gasoline rationing
   in which the days you can buy gas depend on whether the last digit of
   your license plate is a 0.

   The answer couldn't be simpler: Zero is even because it is exactly
   divisible by 2 (i.e., when divided by 2 it yields no remainder) or, if
   you prefer, because it is a multiple of 2 (just as 2, 4, and the like
   are). That's the [2]dictionary definition, and it's also the standard
   mathematical definition.

   Nor would there be any reason to define evenness the same way.
   Mathematical definitions are sometimes chosen with an eye towards
   convenience, for instance when prime numbers are defined to exclude 1,
   so as to guarantee that every positive integer above 1 has a unique
   prime factorization. One could define prime numbers so that 1 is
   included (any positive integer that's divisible only by 1 and itself)
   rather than so 1 is excluded (any positive integer that has exactly
   two different positive integer divisors); but mathematicians have
   chosen the latter definition for their convenience. Still, I know of
   no reason why evenness would be defined so 0 wouldn't be even, and
   I've never seen any such odd definition. (Of course, zero isn't an
   even positive integer, but that's because it's not positive, not
   because it's not even. I've also heard it said that in some versions
   of roulette, if you bet on the evens, you'll lose if the ball lands on
   0, but naturally doesn't really tell us much about the mathematical
   definition.)

   Incidentally, I once ran across an article whose author was saying
   some political question was unanswerable, much like the question
   whether zero is even. I e-mailed him to say that the is-zero-even
   question is very much answerable. He responded with an apology, and a
   suggestion that he should have used some other example, such as "Is
   there an infinite number of primes?"

   I felt compelled to respond that actually there is an infinite number
   of primes, and there's an elegantly simple proof developed of this
   over 2000 years ago (by Euclid). Ah, the perils of drawing analogies
   to a subject that one doesn't really know well.

References

   1. 
http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&ie=UTF-8&q=%22is+zero+even%22&btnG=Google+Search
   2. http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=even

_______________________________________________
Volokh mailing list
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://highsorcery.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/volokh

Reply via email to