The gravity from mass always has a component of divergence, but linear acceleration doesn't. Am I correct to think that is one of the reasons "equivalent" is used instead of "identical"?
R. -----Original Message----- From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Alexander Hollins Sent: Monday, June 14, 2010 9:57 AM To: vortex-l Subject: [Vo]:Equivalence breaks down. http://www.technologyreview.com/blog/arxiv/25331/ The equivalence principle is one of the more fascinating ideas in modern science. It asserts that gravitational mass and inertial mass are identical. Einstein put it like this: the gravitational force we experience on Earth is identical to the force we would experience were we sitting in a spaceship accelerating at 1g. Newton might have said that the m in F=ma is the same as the ms in F=Gm1m2/r^2.
