I was checking the derivation of the Lorentz transformation and it mentions that it relies on space being "homogeneous" or on "isotropy of the space". Why are these assumptions made?
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_transformation#From_physical_principles And as far as I have read 1 or 2 or neither holds in the group method of deriving http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_transformation#From_group_postulates 1. does not hold since two Lorentz transformation correspond to one rotation and one Lorentz transformation. 2. does not hold since Lorentz transformations are not associative I think it is a shortcoming to make preassumptions. David David Jonsson, Sweden, phone callto:+46703000370
