--- [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
"'Actually it would be interesting to hear someone
delinate a clear distinction between taxation on money
and taxation in kind.'...I'm inclined to think there
is no clear distinction,which is why I asked the
original author of the comment (js I believe) to
provide one."

I don't think it was me, I think it was in response to
something I wrote.

Aren't payments in kind worth less than payments in
cash, when the value is a significant portion of one's
income, because they impose the consumption decision
(for lack of a better term) on the individual?  I
thought I remember learning how that was modeled, but
it was a while ago.  If that is true, then maybe taxes
in kind may be analogous?  Just a guess.

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