"Sean Kellogg" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

> "If individual A is authorized to distribute software, and individual B
> initiates an action that results in a copy being made of that software from
> A's distribution server, has B violated the original author's 106(1) rights?
> Or, as I believe Glenn is suggesting (and may be right...  question is
> really interesting) does the grant to distribute authorize B to give others
> the right to copy in the process of distribution?"

Given that Debian is a global distribution, perhaps your question
should reference something other than local law?

I checked '"106(1)" rights' on Google, and it appears to be a US legal
concept. As far as the other 6.1 billion of us go, what is our position?

cheers, Rich.


-- 
rich walker         |  Shadow Robot Company | [EMAIL PROTECTED]
technical director     251 Liverpool Road   |
need a Hand?           London  N1 1LX       | +UK 20 7700 2487
www.shadow.org.uk/products/newhand.shtml


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