>> "version 2 or higher"

> That phrase exists outside the license

That's true.  But sec. 9 of the GPLv2 says:

  If the Program does not specify a version number of this License, you
  may choose any version ever published by the Free Software Foundation.

So, by making the COPYING contain the v2 text, is the author
specifying a particular version?  If yes, then the sec. 9 provision
would be meaningless, since there would be no way to not specify a
version number.  

My understanding is that courts would presume that a license term has
a meaning, if it has a plausible reading.  And there such a reading:
that to specify a version, there needs to be (e.g. in the source
files) a statement like, "This file [or work] is licensed under the
GNU GPLv2."

Corrections, flames, etc. are welcome.

-Sanjoy
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