this brings me to whatever is going to happen to real wages (w/p) where p is determined by mark-up and the degree of monopoly or market imperfection in the broader sense. to use one analytical tool from kalecki: w/p=Q/kL-fF/pL, where k is the degree of monopoly, f is the price of imported material and F is their volume. the rest is standard notation. So by again, broad analogy, as the profits in agriculture rise the real wages fall. And so once more, the scissors open and there will a marked departure of values from prices leaving the direct producers with a little less than they have had before. ----- Original Message ---- From: Michael Perelman <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: PEN-L@SUS.CSUCHICO.EDU Sent: Tuesday, February 19, 2008 7:41:43 PM Subject: Re: Peak food
Yes, but production costs are a relatively small part of most food costs compared to profits, distribution, marketing .... On Mon, Feb 18, 2008 at 11:48:38PM -0800, soula avramidis wrote: > isn't the rising cost of energy content of modern agriculture specifically > rising oil prices partly responsible for the rise in food prices? -- Michael Perelman Economics Department California State University Chico, CA 95929 Tel. 530-898-5321 E-Mail michael at ecst.csuchico.edu michaelperelman.wordpress.com ____________________________________________________________________________________ Be a better friend, newshound, and know-it-all with Yahoo! Mobile. Try it now. http://mobile.yahoo.com/;_ylt=Ahu06i62sR8HDtDypao8Wcj9tAcJ