Murray Jorgensen
Wiener, Matthew wrote:
If you know that the line should pass through (0,0), would it make sense to do a regression without an intercept? You can do that by putting "-1" in the formula, like: lm(y ~ x - 1).
Hope this helps,
Matt
Matthew Wiener
RY84-202
Applied Computer Science & Mathematics Dept.
Merck Research Labs
126 E. Lincoln Ave.
Rahway, NJ 07065
732-594-5303
-----Original Message----- From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Spencer Graves Sent: Wednesday, December 03, 2003 5:51 PM To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Subject: Re: [R] add a point to regression line and cook's distance
What is the context? What do the "outliers" represent? If you think carefully about the context, you may find the answer.
hope this helps. spencer graves
p.s. I know statisticians who worked for HP before the split and who still work for either HP or Agilent, I'm not certain which. If you want to contact me off-line, I can give you a couple of names if that might help.
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Hi,
This is more a statistics question rather than R question. But I thought
people on this list may have some pointers.
MY question is like the following: I would like to have a robust regression line. The data I have are mostly
clustered around a small range. So
the regression line tend to be influenced strongly by outlier points (with
large cook's distance). From the application
's background, I know that the line should pass (0,0), which is far away
from the data cloud. I would like to add this
point to have a more robust line. The question is: does it make sense to do
this? what are the negative impacts if any?
thanks, jonathan
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-- Dr Murray Jorgensen http://www.stats.waikato.ac.nz/Staff/maj.html Department of Statistics, University of Waikato, Hamilton, New Zealand Email: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Fax 7 838 4155 Phone +64 7 838 4773 wk +64 7 849 6486 home Mobile 021 1395 862
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