(1)  I take it that the argument isn’t really that courts 
shouldn’t “enforce religiously motivated obligations.”  Presumably no court 
would or should scrutinize the motivations for a person’s obligation, and then 
refuse to enforce the obligation because it stems from the person’s religious 
beliefs.

               (2)  The reason the Court has given for refusing to determine 
religious law is that such determinations would involve “entanglement in 
questions of religious doctrine, polity, and practice.”  Jones v. Wolf.  That 
reason does not apply when courts apply neutral principles of arbitration law 
to simply enforce an arbitral decisions – enforcement that does not require 
courts to themselves resolve any questions of religious doctrine.

In fact, Jones expressly endorsed one particular form of binding religious 
arbitration as one of the best ways of resolving religious disputes over 
property.  “[T]he neutral-principles analysis shares the peculiar genius of 
private-law systems in general—flexibility in ordering private rights and 
obligations to reflect the intentions of the parties.  Through appropriate 
reversionary clauses and trust provisions, religious societies can specify what 
is to happen to church property in the event of a particular contingency, or 
what religious body will determine the ownership in the event of a schism or 
doctrinal controversy.  In this manner, a religious organization can ensure 
that a dispute over the ownership of church property will be resolved in accord 
with the desires of the members.”  (Emphasis added.)  And the Court was not 
just discussing religious organizations’ decisionmaking that is then enforced 
through moral suasion or the threat of excommunication or shunning.  The Court 
was clearly envisioning secular courts enforcing the decisions of the religious 
bodies specified in the contract, will, or deed.

(3)  As to church autonomy, we do not strip churches of access to government 
power when it comes to protecting their property against crimes, or torts.  I 
take it that even Marci doesn’t think it’s an invasion of church autonomy to 
allow churches to take secular contracts to secular court.

Why can’t a church – or a religious individual – ask a court to enforce the 
following contract:  “A promises B to do task C.  In the event a dispute arises 
under this contract, A agrees to pay B whatever amount, if any, it is ordered 
to pay by arbitral organization D.”  (I take it B would usually have a 
corresponding promise to A as well.)  After all, it would generally be 
enforceable if D is a secular entity applying secular rules; what’s wrong with 
its being a religious entity applying religious rules?

Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of hamilto...@aol.com
Sent: Thursday, November 11, 2010 1:03 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: TRO against Oklahoma "no use of Sharia Law"

By refusing to use the civil courts to enforce religion-based contracts, we are 
not denying "religious people" access to civil enforcement, but rather denying 
access only to religious contracts that effect religious law.  I think it is 
quite clear in the Establishment cases that it is inappropriate for the courts 
to determine religious law; that is easy.  Why then would it be all right for 
them to enforce
religiously motivated obligations?    I have not heard a good reason why a 
dual-track enforcement scheme is not the better approach, with religious courts 
enforcing religious contracts (assuming enforcement does not violate the law, 
e.g., no cutting off hands or genitally mutilating girls) and civil courts 
enforcing contracts that do not require an interpretation of religious law, or 
an interference in the religious organization's universe/world.
For those who believe that so-called "church autonomy" is a positive value, I 
cannot see how civil enfocement of religious contracts can be a good thing.

Marci
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