(1) I take it that the argument isn’t really that courts shouldn’t “enforce religiously motivated obligations.” Presumably no court would or should scrutinize the motivations for a person’s obligation, and then refuse to enforce the obligation because it stems from the person’s religious beliefs.
(2) The reason the Court has given for refusing to determine religious law is that such determinations would involve “entanglement in questions of religious doctrine, polity, and practice.” Jones v. Wolf. That reason does not apply when courts apply neutral principles of arbitration law to simply enforce an arbitral decisions – enforcement that does not require courts to themselves resolve any questions of religious doctrine. In fact, Jones expressly endorsed one particular form of binding religious arbitration as one of the best ways of resolving religious disputes over property. “[T]he neutral-principles analysis shares the peculiar genius of private-law systems in general—flexibility in ordering private rights and obligations to reflect the intentions of the parties. Through appropriate reversionary clauses and trust provisions, religious societies can specify what is to happen to church property in the event of a particular contingency, or what religious body will determine the ownership in the event of a schism or doctrinal controversy. In this manner, a religious organization can ensure that a dispute over the ownership of church property will be resolved in accord with the desires of the members.” (Emphasis added.) And the Court was not just discussing religious organizations’ decisionmaking that is then enforced through moral suasion or the threat of excommunication or shunning. The Court was clearly envisioning secular courts enforcing the decisions of the religious bodies specified in the contract, will, or deed. (3) As to church autonomy, we do not strip churches of access to government power when it comes to protecting their property against crimes, or torts. I take it that even Marci doesn’t think it’s an invasion of church autonomy to allow churches to take secular contracts to secular court. Why can’t a church – or a religious individual – ask a court to enforce the following contract: “A promises B to do task C. In the event a dispute arises under this contract, A agrees to pay B whatever amount, if any, it is ordered to pay by arbitral organization D.” (I take it B would usually have a corresponding promise to A as well.) After all, it would generally be enforceable if D is a secular entity applying secular rules; what’s wrong with its being a religious entity applying religious rules? Eugene From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of hamilto...@aol.com Sent: Thursday, November 11, 2010 1:03 PM To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu Subject: Re: TRO against Oklahoma "no use of Sharia Law" By refusing to use the civil courts to enforce religion-based contracts, we are not denying "religious people" access to civil enforcement, but rather denying access only to religious contracts that effect religious law. I think it is quite clear in the Establishment cases that it is inappropriate for the courts to determine religious law; that is easy. Why then would it be all right for them to enforce religiously motivated obligations? I have not heard a good reason why a dual-track enforcement scheme is not the better approach, with religious courts enforcing religious contracts (assuming enforcement does not violate the law, e.g., no cutting off hands or genitally mutilating girls) and civil courts enforcing contracts that do not require an interpretation of religious law, or an interference in the religious organization's universe/world. For those who believe that so-called "church autonomy" is a positive value, I cannot see how civil enfocement of religious contracts can be a good thing. Marci
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