Dear Marty,

I'm not sure about how you've constructed the "run of the mill" and "not one of 
those sorts of cases" categories - because I think it seems to make an awful 
lot depend simply on what the government has chosen to identify as a prohibited 
ground of decision, and it seems to de-emphasizes the nature of the position / 
relationship at issue - but let's put that aside.  As I see it, for purposes of 
thinking about what a commitment to religious freedom entails, before we get to 
what you call the "court's basic function [of] determin[ing] whether the 
prohibited consideration motivated the action", there is the question whether 
the action in question is part of the selection and application by a religious 
community of its criteria for religious ministers.  As I read your second 
paragraph, you are open to the possibility that "perhaps" a ministerial 
exception is warranted - but only perhaps - even in the kinds of cases 
described in that paragraph.  For me, though, it is bedrock - of the "The 
Sedition Act of 1798 was inconsistent with an attractive understanding of the 
Freedom of Speech" variety - that an exception is required in such cases.  But, 
I won't belabor the claim here, because I know you want to get others' 
reactions.

With respect to your last question, though, about Dale and RFRA.  Both do, as 
you suggest, provide some protections for the decisions of religious 
communities, when they act as employers.  Still, they are not (in my view) 
sufficient.  Two quick thoughts:  First, I am not sure I know what Dale really 
stands for, and I'm not confident that everyone who is arguing "Dale is enough" 
believes that Dale was rightly decided.  Let's assume, as many of us on this 
list probably believe, that Dale is wrong (because, say, it confused 
discriminatory "conduct" with "speech").  What, then, prevents a state 
government from imposing liability on, say, a (hypothetical) conservative 
Protestant congregation that refuses to hire a woman, because she is a woman, 
as its minister (assuming it can do so without entangling itself in "religious" 
questions)?  After all, we are thinking and talking not just about the Court's 
doctrines, but about church-state relations and religious freedom more 
generally.  If we were constructing our doctrine, rather than trying to 
untangle and apply it, how would you proceed in this case?

Second - again, sorry to be a broken record --  I do not believe the question 
that is presented in the core ministerial-exception case (and I think H-T is 
closer to the core than, it sounds like, you do) should be answered by asking a 
civil court to decide whether the state has announced a sufficiently 
"compelling" interest to justify the police-power exercise / expansion that, it 
seems to me, such a case involves.   I have tried to write up this sense / view 
/ intuition of mine in a few places, including this (very) short essay, "Are 
Churches (Just) Like the Boy Scouts?":       
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=1017590

Anyway, thanks for the conversation.  Best, R

Richard W. Garnett
Professor of Law and Associate Dean
Notre Dame Law School
P.O. Box 780
Notre Dame, Indiana 46556-0780

574-631-6981 (w)
574-276-2252 (cell)

SSRN page<http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=342235>

Blogs:

Prawfsblawg<http://prawfsblawg.blogs.com/>
Mirror of Justice<http://www.mirrorofjustice.blogs.com/>
Law, Religion, and Ethics<http://lawreligionethics.net/>

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Marty Lederman
Sent: Wednesday, August 17, 2011 8:54 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: The Two Forms of "Ministerial Exception" Cases -- a Query

Hosanna-Tabor is not a run-of-the-mill "ministerial exception" case; and 
because of that, it raises a question that I was hoping others on the list 
could address.

The much more common type of ME case, with which we're all familiar, involves a 
dispute about whether the church or organization in question violated a 
statutory antidiscrimination norm.  For example, (i) the church purports to 
comply with the prohibition against discrimination on the basis of sex or 
disability; (ii) the church claims that its employment decision was not based 
on the proscribed consideration but was instead based on permissible, often 
religiously-evaluated, considerations; and (iii) the plaintiff asserts that no, 
in fact the asserted neutral reasons are pretextual, and that the church 
actually acted on the basis of the prohibited consideration, such as sex or 
disability.  In such cases, the court's basic function is to determine whether 
the prohibited consideration motivated the action -- a question that might (or 
might not) entangle the court in evaluations of religious doctrine or 
assessment of religious cosniderations.

Such cases can raise difficult questions:  Perhaps they call for some form of 
ministerial exception; perhaps not.  At the very least, some such cases likely 
require the court to accept the defendant's view of certain religious 
assessments:  As the SG puts it, in such cases "the district court could limit 
the pretext inquiry to cordon off challenges to the religious organization's 
religious assessment."  (Pages 38-41 of the SG brief have a nice discussion of 
such issues.)

But Hosanna-Tabor is not one of those sorts of cases.  It is, instead, the more 
unusual case where the defendant acknowledges that it acted in violation of the 
antidiscrimination norm -- the school fired Perich for threatening to file an 
ADA claim, something the retaliation provision of the ADA itself plainly 
forbids -- and asserts that it should be able to do so for religious reasons, 
namely, because it asserts the existence of a religious tenet that called 
teachers must resolve such ADA claims internally, rather than involving civil 
authorities.  (I have some questions about whether the Synod's rules truly 
require ADA claims to be resolved internally, but that's for another post -- I 
assume, as do the respondents, that the court here would accept that 
representation of religious doctrine as accurate.)

This sort of case is also familiar to us, because it has the structure of a 
claim for exemption from a generally applicable rule where that rule conflicts 
with religious tenets.  Such claims were once raised under Sherbert/Yoder and 
are now raised regularly under RFRA.  Hosanna-Tabor could have asserted a RFRA 
defense to the EEOC's claim.  If it had, and if it demonstrated that the ADA 
retaliation provision imposed a substantial burden on its religious exercise in 
this case, then it would be entitled to an exemption as a matter of statutory 
right unless the government could show that denial of such an exemption were 
the least restrictive means of furthering a compelling governmental interest.  
Similarly, under Boy Scouts v. Dale, the school would be entitled to an 
exemption as a matter of First Amendment law if it could show that application 
of the ADA rule here would affect in a significant way its ability to advocate 
its viewpoint, and if that interest were not overridden by a compelling 
governmental interest.

So here's my question:  If the school cannot (or chooses not to) demonstrate 
that the ADA would substantially burden its exercise of religion as applied to 
the Perich case, or that it would significantly affect its ability to advocate 
its viewpoint about internal dispute resolution -- or if it made such a showing 
but a compelling state interest in preserving the ADA anti-retaliation rule 
overrode that impact on religious exercise or expression of viewpoint -- why 
should the school nevertheless be entitled to violate the ADA?

That is to say:  Why aren't RFRA and Dale sufficient in such a case such as 
thus to account for all religious liberty and associational expression concerns?
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