Thanks, but whose zealotry exactly?  To the best of my 
knowledge, there has been no prosecution or threatened prosecution of ministers 
for conducting same-sex marriages -- the anti-same-sex-marriage forces, 
“zealots” or otherwise, don’t seem to have yet acted with regard to such 
religious ceremonies (though maybe they just haven’t had a chance).  I 
understand that, even in the absence of such prosecutions or threats of 
prosecution so far, some ministers might be deterred from conducting the 
ceremonies, but a court decision interpreting the statute as not applying to 
same-sex marriages would suffice, especially since that’s the most natural 
reading of the statutory text.

                What basis is there for a court, faced with statutory text that 
could easily (indeed, most naturally) be interpreted as not covering religious 
same-sex marriage ceremonies, to strike down the statute on the theory that it 
might be misinterpreted as indeed covering such ceremonies?  Wouldn’t that be 
the exact opposite of how courts generally operate under the principle of 
constitutional avoidance?

                Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Steven Jamar
Sent: Friday, May 09, 2014 3:33 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: States prohibiting churches from sanctioning same-sex marriage

Yes. You are missing zealotry and the fact that and means or.

Sent from Steve's iPhone


On May 9, 2014, at 6:20 PM, "Volokh, Eugene" 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>> wrote:
                Oh, I agree that the law doesn’t categorically exempt purely 
religious ceremonies.  The prohibition in section 51-7 would apply to such 
ceremonies, but only if a license is “required by law” for such ceremonies.  
But I don’t see how section 51-7 makes it a crime to celebrate a religious 
ceremony connected to a marriage for which a license is neither required nor 
even allowed.  Or am I missing something?

                Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Friday, May 09, 2014 3:17 PM
To: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: States prohibiting churches from sanctioning same-sex marriage

The principal source of ambiguity is that §51-7 goes on to provide an exception 
for couples who are married by a judge and later have a religious ceremony as 
well. Hard to see why that exception was needed if no one thought the law 
reached purely religious ceremonies.

Douglas Laycock
Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Virginia Law School
580 Massie Road
Charlottesville, VA  22903
     434-243-8546

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, May 09, 2014 6:11 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: States prohibiting churches from sanctioning same-sex marriage

                Well, I’d be happy to see a declaratory judgment making clear 
that the statutes don’t apply here.  But that seems to me to be pretty certain 
from the text of the statute; section 51-7 provides, “Every minister, officer, 
or any other person authorized to solemnize a marriage under the laws of this 
State, who marries any couple without a license being first delivered to that 
person, as required by law, or after the expiration of such license, or who 
fails to return such license to the register of deeds within 10 days after any 
marriage celebrated by virtue thereof, with the certificate appended thereto 
duly filled up and signed, shall forfeit and pay two hundred dollars ($200.00) 
to any person who sues therefore, and shall also be guilty of a Class 1 
misdemeanor.”  In a same-sex marriage, there is no license required by law to 
be delivered to the person; indeed, no license is legally possible.  So I don’t 
see any basis for invalidating the statute on free speech or free exercise 
grounds as to same-sex marriages, though, as I said, it would be just fine to 
make clear that the statute indeed doesn’t bar such ceremonies.

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Steven Jamar
Sent: Friday, May 09, 2014 12:47 PM
To: Law Religion & Law List
Subject: Re: States prohibiting churches from sanctioning same-sex marriage

I don’t find that analysis persuasive in the sense that ministers would 
properly fear prosecution under that statute for performing a solemnization 
ceremony for same sex couples — they would, as I read the statute, violate two 
aspects of it:  peforming a solemnization ceremony between same sex couples AND 
doing so without a state-issued marriage license to perform that ceremony.

To avoid the constitutional problem, the NC court could interpret it as Will 
Esser proposes, but it could also find the statute to be unconsitutionally 
vague or ambiguous as to the particular issue of performing a solemnization 
ceremony for a same sex couple.

Given that the suit is in federal court and no state court has definitively 
ruled that Esser’s interpretation is the correct one, it seems that the federal 
court might well interpret it as unconstitutionally chilling free exercise (and 
free speech).

Steve


--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar                     vox:  202-806-8017
Director of International Programs, Institute for Intellectual Property and 
Social Justice http://iipsj.org
Howard University School of Law           fax:  202-806-8567
http://sdjlaw.org


"I do not at all resent criticism, even when, for the sake of emphasis, it for 
a time parts company with reality."



Winston Churchill, speech to the House of Commons, 1941



On May 9, 2014, at 2:13 PM, Volokh, Eugene 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>> wrote:

                I agree entirely, but which particular statutory scheme is 
under discussion?  If it’s the North Carolina one, a recent post argued, I 
think, persuasively, that North Carolina statutes don’t actually prohibit 
religious same-sex marriage ceremonies.

                Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Steven Jamar
Sent: Friday, May 09, 2014 10:36 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: States prohibiting churches from sanctioning same-sex marriage

Isn’t this an easy case of free exercise violation?  Assuming that states do 
not need to recognize same sex marriages as a matter of federal equal 
protection law, and do not need recognize church-recognized same sex marriages 
as vaild for state purposes (though the state would still recognize church 
authority to perform opposite-sex marriage), can the state ban a church from 
performing a religious marriage ceremony?

--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar                     vox:  202-806-8017
Director of International Programs, Institute for Intellectual Property and 
Social Justice http://iipsj.org<http://iipsj.org/>
Howard University School of Law           fax:  202-806-8567
http://sdjlaw.org<http://sdjlaw.org/>

"Education:  the path from cocky ignorance to miserable uncertainty."

Mark Twain




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