Wow, that's interesting. I think vouchers are quite a bit different. Deb Widiss 
and I characterized civil marriage as a benefit in our piece in Penn. 
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=1594361. And I stand by our 
arguments there -- you're right that understanding civil marriage as a benefit 
can be useful for understanding some problems, like the question of equal 
access for same-sea couples. But there are strong arguments that access to 
civil marriage performed by clergy is a fundamental right. So that's one 
difference with school vouchers. Also, doctrinally, the statute you suggest 
would run up against Hosanna-Tabor, at least insofar as the clergy's actions 
are governed by theology. But I'm actively thinking about all of this right now 
and may well change my view.



On May 7, 2015, at 12:10 PM, Marty Lederman 
<lederman.ma...@gmail.com<mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com>> wrote:

Thanks, Nelson.  These really are quibbles, since we all agree -- I'm sure 
everyone on this list agrees -- that ministers are not about to be excluded 
from solemnizing marriages because they refuse to do so for same-sex or 
mixed-religion couples.  Justice Kagan's "give me a break" response to Scalia 
was exactly right.

Even so, I agree with Mike that there might be some value in us lawprofs trying 
to figure out precisely why that is--or at least which doctrines might need to 
be addressed.

Norwood is not a state action case--that is to say, it's not a case about 
whether the private actors' conduct violates the Constitution because they 
should be "deemed" representatives of the state.  It's a case about whether the 
state itself violates the Constitution when it knowing chooses to confer 
benefits on private discriminators.  I think that neither theory of 
unconstitutionality is likely to be fruitful here -- but I do think it's 
important to distinguish between them, because they require different analyses. 
 (As an example, we treated them very differently, to different effect, in the 
2000 OLC memo.)

More importantly, perhaps, I disagree with your First Amendment suggestion, for 
a reason that might be important across various free exercise contexts.  Let's 
say a state did decide to grant "solemnization" licenses only to those persons 
who agree not to discriminate against any couples on the basis of race, 
religion or sexual orientation.  You suggest that such a state law would be 
unconstitutional as applied to clergy "who had theological reasons for 
declining to officiate at certain weddings."  I don't think so.  Of course the 
state can't stop the clergy from performing religious marriage ceremonies.  But 
I think if could make nondiscrimination a condition for obtaining the state 
benefit of a state "solemnization" license, in the same way a state can insist 
that vouchers be used only at schools that do not discriminate against students 
on such grounds.






On Thu, May 7, 2015 at 11:43 AM, Nelson Tebbe 
<nelson.te...@brooklaw.edu<mailto:nelson.te...@brooklaw.edu>> wrote:


Marty:

I'm not sure there is any distance between you and Mike, even after reading 
your last post. Mike said there may well be circumstances under which state 
action could be found -- circumstances like the ones present in Norwood, 
perhaps -- but that shouldn't be a reason for the Court to rule against 
marriage equality in the pending cases. I don't read you to disagree with that.

I also believe that, with respect to Justice Scalia's actual question about 
clergy, there likely are First Amendment protections. You can see that by 
imagining a state that voluntarily prohibited discrimination by wedding 
officiants who are licensed to perform civil marriages. That sort of state 
statute likely would run afoul of First Amendment protections for clergy, at 
least for those who had theological reasons for declining to officiate at 
certain weddings.

Nelson


On May 7, 2015, at 9:17 AM, Marty Lederman 
<lederman.ma...@gmail.com<mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com>> wrote:

Mike Dorf responds:

I completely agree with Marty that there could be some circumstances in which a 
particular deputization by the state would itself violate EP and more generally 
the state action analysis is not airtight. That's why I referred to it as "more 
promising" rather than a slam dunk. There are many more subtleties than those I 
was able to address in the column. Nelson Tebbe and I will be working on a more 
academic paper expanding and refining my preliminary analysis.

Much as I hate to quibble when Mike professes "complete agreement" with me . . 
. I'm not sure we are in complete accord.

There are, I think, at least two distinct equal protection questions:

1.  Are the licensed "solemnizers" state actors?  They would be if they were 
"deputized" by the state, as Mike suggests; but I doubt they are so 
"deputized."  Instead, they are merely licensed to do something that is a 
precondition for someone else obtaining a legal status--which, as Mike's column 
suggests, makes them, in a sense, akin to the private schools at which vouchers 
are used.  Nothing about state action doctrine is ever "airtight," but I don't 
think this one would be a particularly tough, or controversial, case, at least 
under post-1970 precedents.

2.  As the 2000 OLC opinion explains, the harder question is not the 
constitutionality of the minister's own discrimination (which is not state 
action), but instead the decision by the state itself to "license" the minister 
to perform a private function that will have legal effect, knowing that the 
minister will engage in discriminatory conduct that would be off limits to the 
state itself.  Again, cf. Norwood.  Assuming, however, that the state will give 
a "solemnization" license to just about anyone, without regard to any 
subjective, discretionary criteria, then I strongly doubt the Court would ever 
prohibit the state from granting licenses to ministers who discriminate on the 
basis of religion or sexual orientation.  That would be akin to prohibiting New 
Mexico from conferring a business license upon Elane Photography--i.e., it's 
virtually inconceivable.

On Thu, May 7, 2015 at 7:57 AM, Marty Lederman 
<lederman.ma...@gmail.com<mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com>> wrote:
Sorry for posting before searching.  According to this recent student comment 
-- http://law.emory.edu/elj/_documents/volumes/63/4/comments/stevens.pdf --

"in almost every state, a solemnization ceremony is necessary for a valid 
marriage."

Putting to one side the question of whether there's any constitutional problem 
in requiring "solemnization," my initial thought is to agree with Mike that 
just because (i) solemnization is a condition precedent to receipt of a 
marriage license and (ii) the state also only permits "licensed" persons to 
solemnize, that does not mean that such "solemnizers" become state actors.

On the other hand, it does raise at least the theoretical question of whether 
it is constitutionally permissible for the state itself to afford a 
"solemnizing" license to particular private individuals in cases where the 
state knows that such individuals will discriminate on a basis (e.g., religion, 
race, sexual orientation) that would be off limits to the state itself if the 
state were performing the solemnizing function.  This is akin to the familiar 
questions of whether the state can provide vouchers to schools/social service 
organizations that discriminate against employees or students or beneficiaries 
on the basis of race or religion.  Cf. Norwood v. Harrison (state is prohibited 
from giving schoolbooks to racially discriminatory schools, even pursuant to 
generally available program).  See pages 20-25 & n.55 of 
http://balkin.blogspot.com/olc.charitablechoice.pdf.

On Thu, May 7, 2015 at 7:37 AM, Marty Lederman 
<lederman.ma...@gmail.com<mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com>> wrote:
Mike Dorf 
(https://verdict.justia.com/2015/05/06/why-can-clergy-opt-out-of-same-sex-marriage)
 on the question Justice Scalia asked about whether ministers would be able to 
discriminate against same-sex couples when they are vested with the power of 
the state to "officiate" weddings:

A more promising approach might be to deny the first premise of Justice 
Scalia's puzzle. Perhaps when the government recognizes the validity of 
religious wedding ceremonies it should not be understood as deputizing the 
clergy who officiate at those ceremonies. Rather, the state recognizes wedding 
ceremonies regardless of whether a public official (like a judge or justice of 
the peace) officiates or a clergy member officiates, and if the latter, 
regardless of the tenets of the particular faith.

In this view, according state recognition to all manner of religious wedding 
ceremonies as well as to civil ceremonies is permissible in much the same way 
that government vouchers for private education are valid even if large numbers 
of parents use those vouchers to send their children to parochial schools-and 
even if the curricula at those parochial schools include messages that would 
violate the Establishment Clause if pronounced by the government itself. In 
doctrinal terms, state recognition of religious wedding ceremonies does not 
necessarily turn the presiding clergy into state actors.

I'm curious:  Are even Mike's premises (see bolded phrases) accurate?  Do 
states actually "deputize" clergy and others to engage in any state action?  To 
be sure, the standard trope is "By the power vested in me by the State of X, I 
hereby pronounce you . . . ; but does the state actually vest the officiant 
with any "power"?  For that matter, does the wedding "ceremony" have any 
bearing on marital status, or any other aspect of state law?  Do states 
"recognize" ceremonies (or their "validity"), as such?  Don't most or all 
jurisdictions confer marriage licenses without the requirement of any ceremony 
whatsoever?  That is to say:  Is it possibly the case that marriage ceremonies 
have nothing to do with civil marriage under the law?

I probably should know the answers to these questions already, but I don't . . 
. so any insight you all might have would be greatly appreciated.


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