Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-23 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal 

Just trying to clarify things.

1) OK, I partly understand if we allow words as output. 
But words are descriptions (3p, or Thirdness), 
not experience (1p, or Firstness). 

2) Let us admit for the moment that it is possible 
for a computer to be conscious. What would it be
conscious of ?  The code it is running, which would be
like a stream of consciousness, ie an experience ?




- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-22, 12:00:41
Subject: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland




On 22 Jan 2013, at 12:36, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

You said:

God, matter, consciousness are never computable

Is that because the above are nonphysical ?  


Matter is physical, by definition, yet non computable. This follows from the UD 
Argument.






If consciousness is not computable, can ideas be computable ?


Yes. Most of them are (the programs, the monads).







I'm totally lost. I don't even understand how ANYTHING other
than numbers can be computable. 


Strings of letter are not number, but the operation of concatenation is 
computable ( a + baba = ababa).
Look at your computer, you see mails, letters, etc. Not number, yet all what 
you do with your computer (like sending a mail) are computable operation.









Suppose you do a computation. You get a number or a bunch of numbers.
How can you say what they mean ? 


By remembering the definitions, the axioms I am assuming, etc. I don't see the 
problem. If you refer to the qualia, this is explain by the peculiarity of the 
logic of machines self-reference: when machine introspect they can understand 
things, without completely understanding the understanding process itself. It 
is normal, but it needs a bot of computer science and mathematical logic to get 
the complete picture.


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-23 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Jan 2013, at 11:42, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

Just trying to clarify things.

1) OK, I partly understand if we allow words as output.


... and inputs. OK.




But words are descriptions (3p, or Thirdness),


OK.




not experience (1p, or Firstness).


Yes. Experiences are not words.





2) Let us admit for the moment that it is possible
for a computer to be conscious. What would it be
conscious of ?  The code it is running, which would be
like a stream of consciousness, ie an experience ?


In fact, a computer is never conscious.
Similarly, my brain is not conscious. No more than my liver.

It is the (immaterial) person which is conscious. The brain, or the  
computer, is only a local tool to make that conscious person able to  
manifest itself relatively to its most probable computational histories.


The person is defined mainly by its first person experience, which is  
not something that we can identify with anything third person  
describable. But we can define it, at least in a first approximation,  
by the knower (notably the one who know the content of its memories).


It has been shown, by Montague and Kaplan precisely, that like  
truth, knowledge by a machine cannot be defined in the language of  
the machine. But as scientists, by studying much simpler machine than  
ourselves, we can use a local and little theory of truth (like  
Traski's one) to (meta) define the knowledge of the machine (notably  
by linking the machine's belief (which are definable and representable  
in 3p) and truth. This works well, and explains already why the  
introspecting machine cannot know who she is. The identity card, or  
even the complete description of her body, will not do the trick (that  
leads only to a 3p copy, not her). That explains also that the knowing  
machine can only *bet* on a substitution level, without ever being  
sure it is correct, making comp asking for an act of faith (similar to  
some faith in some possible reincarnation).


It is counter-intuitive, and it does leads to the reversal: eventually  
the brain and bodies are construct of the mind, even if they are also  
related to deep and complex 3p number relations. Consciousness is not  
due to the running of a computer. It only appears locally to be like  
that. In the global big picture, it is the running of a computer which  
appear as an event in consciousness.


I hope this can help a bit. It is hard to explain something counter- 
intuitive in intuitive terms, and that is why I use the deductive  
method, starting from the hypothesis that there is a level where we  
are 3p duplicable.


Bruno










- Receiving the following content -
From: Bruno Marchal
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2013-01-22, 12:00:41
Subject: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland


On 22 Jan 2013, at 12:36, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

You said:

God, matter, consciousness are never computable

Is that because the above are nonphysical ?


Matter is physical, by definition, yet non computable. This follows  
from the UD Argument.





If consciousness is not computable, can ideas be computable ?


Yes. Most of them are (the programs, the monads).





I'm totally lost. I don't even understand how ANYTHING other
than numbers can be computable.


Strings of letter are not number, but the operation of concatenation  
is computable ( a + baba = ababa).
Look at your computer, you see mails, letters, etc. Not number, yet  
all what you do with your computer (like sending a mail) are  
computable operation.







Suppose you do a computation. You get a number or a bunch of numbers.
How can you say what they mean ?


By remembering the definitions, the axioms I am assuming, etc. I  
don't see the problem. If you refer to the qualia, this is explain  
by the peculiarity of the logic of machines self-reference: when  
machine introspect they can understand things, without completely  
understanding the understanding process itself. It is normal, but it  
needs a bot of computer science and mathematical logic to get the  
complete picture.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-22 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal 

You said:

God, matter, consciousness are never computable

Is that because the above are nonphysical ?  
If consciousness is not computable, can ideas be computable ?

I'm totally lost. I don't even understand how ANYTHING other
than numbers can be computable. 

Suppose you do a computation. You get a number or a bunch of numbers.
How can you say what they mean ? 
- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-21, 09:36:34
Subject: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland




On 20 Jan 2013, at 20:44, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the words. 

That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract 
computations.



?
God, matter, consciousness are never computable. Where did I ever used God to 
designate computations. It seems to me that I insist a lot for not making that 
kind of spurious identification. 
I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical Truth, 
explaining why it makes God unnameable by machines.
Computation are Sigma_1
Truth is Sigma_1 union Sigma_2 union Sigma_3 union Sigma_4 union ... 


You are a bit quick here, Brent,


Bruno








http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2013, at 23:14, John Mikes wrote:


Bruno:

...I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical  
Truth,


does that mean: complying with human logic (any)?


Not really. Arithmetical truth is independent of the humans. 17 would  
be prime even if the humans did not exist. This is made explicit by  
the comp context. if comp is false it might be different, and you are  
free to propose a non comp theory. But once you accept a digital brain  
prosthesis and survived, it is only a matter of time and work to  
understand that 17 is prime is not a specifically human truth, but  
an universal one.




Just imagine a world (universe) without logically THINKING beings  
(humans?) with no math to formulate (numbers, to express): is there  
a God there?


God is universal truth (that we are searching, or not). With comp,  
I would say yes, there is a God there, as with comp God is  
arithmetical truth, and arithmetical truth in true even in a world  
without any math formula. Now if you say that there is no number in  
that world, then there will be no God in the sense of comp. But I am  
not sure I can make sense of the word world with or without numbers.  
Numbers are not the type of things belonging to world, at least not  
with further precision.

May be your question is not precise enough. Feel free to elaborate.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2013, at 12:36, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

You said:

God, matter, consciousness are never computable

Is that because the above are nonphysical ?


Matter is physical, by definition, yet non computable. This follows  
from the UD Argument.





If consciousness is not computable, can ideas be computable ?


Yes. Most of them are (the programs, the monads).





I'm totally lost. I don't even understand how ANYTHING other
than numbers can be computable.


Strings of letter are not number, but the operation of concatenation  
is computable ( a + baba = ababa).
Look at your computer, you see mails, letters, etc. Not number, yet  
all what you do with your computer (like sending a mail) are  
computable operation.







Suppose you do a computation. You get a number or a bunch of numbers.
How can you say what they mean ?


By remembering the definitions, the axioms I am assuming, etc. I don't  
see the problem. If you refer to the qualia, this is explain by the  
peculiarity of the logic of machines self-reference: when machine  
introspect they can understand things, without completely  
understanding the understanding process itself. It is normal, but it  
needs a bot of computer science and mathematical logic to get the  
complete picture.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 Jan 2013, at 20:44, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of  
the words.


That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract  
computations.


?
God, matter, consciousness are never computable. Where did I ever used  
God to designate computations. It seems to me that I insist a lot  
for not making that kind of spurious identification.
I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical Truth,  
explaining why it makes God unnameable by machines.

Computation are Sigma_1
Truth is Sigma_1 union Sigma_2 union Sigma_3 union Sigma_4 union ...

You are a bit quick here, Brent,

Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-21 Thread meekerdb

On 1/21/2013 6:36 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Jan 2013, at 20:44, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the words. 


That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract 
computations.


?
God, matter, consciousness are never computable. Where did I ever used God to 
designate computations. It seems to me that I insist a lot for not making that kind of 
spurious identification.

I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical Truth,


And that's the most common sense of the word??!

Brent

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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-21 Thread John Mikes
Bruno:

*...I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical Truth,
*
*
*
does that mean: complying with human logic (any)? Just imagine a world
(universe) without logically THINKING beings (humans?) with no math to
formulate (numbers, to express): is there a God there?
JM

*
*


On Mon, Jan 21, 2013 at 2:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/21/2013 6:36 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 20 Jan 2013, at 20:44, meekerdb wrote:

  On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the
 words.


 That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract
 computations.


  ?
 God, matter, consciousness are never computable. Where did I ever used
 God to designate computations. It seems to me that I insist a lot for not
 making that kind of spurious identification.
 I have identified, in the comp context, God with Arithmetical Truth,


 And that's the most common sense of the word??!

 Brent

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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 17 Jan 2013, at 23:17, Russell Standish wrote:


Hi John,

My suspicion is that Roger is so keen to impose a Piercean triadic
view on things that he has omitted to make the necessary connection
with the normal meaning of 1p/3p as standing for subjective/objective.



I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the  
words.
Note that such 1p/3p distinction is made precise informally by the  
inside/outside the teleportation/duplication boxes in UDA, the terms/ 
wave in Everett (implicitly), and formally by the Bp and Bp  p in  
AUDA. But this makes just more precise, for the reasoning, the usual  
subjective/objective distinction, or even the first and third person  
usual grammatical distinction.
One apparent exception is that the physical reality is no more that  
much objective, as it is (with comp) a first person plural construct.  
Physical objectivity appears to be a first person plural  
construction (by *all* Löbian machines, not just the humans). Of  
course this is due to the reversal: objective is just taken in the  
usual 3p sense, but physics is no more 3p.


The use of the traditional sense for 1p/3p is even more well suited  
for the Neoplatonist (Plotinian) trinity, as we get more or less  
precisely the same type of trinity with the intensional variant of  
self-reference (p, Bp, and Bp  p, playing respectively the role of  
the outer God, the Noùs, and the inner God-universal-soul).


This might or not be compared with Pierce, I don't know.

Best,

Bruno






Cheers

On Tue, Jan 15, 2013 at 04:55:17PM -0500, John Mikes wrote:

Russell,
I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my  
hand about
objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are  
'us' and
cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby  
1904, who -

maybe? - got it what 2p was.
My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may
communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p
communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and  
reformed
into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I  
'read' or
'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p  
mindset.

No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance?
John Mikes

On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au 
wrote:



On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:

Hi Russell Standish

2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses  
synthetic

logic.

It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.

The following equivalences should hold between comp
and Peirce's logical categories:

3p = Thirdness or III
2p = Secondness or II
1p = Firstness or I.

Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
So .

Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:

http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html


Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
positively and without reference to anything else.

Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
with respect to a second but regardless of any third.

Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
(A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)



Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness  
that

relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


--



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Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Jan 2013, at 13:29, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Russell Standish

Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,  
positively and without reference to anything else.


This can make sense. We can relate this with the common notion of  
subjectivity.



Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, with  
respect to a second but regardless of any third.


Hmm... Why not, but I don't see this as fundamental. It can be  
distracting.



Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, in  
bringing a second and third into relation to each other.


OK. Then with comp thirdness is arithmetic (and physics is, counter- 
intuitively, still 1p, hopefully plural). The physical is a mode of  
being which is *not* such as it is.


Bruno





I believe 1p is Firstness (raw experience of cat) + Secondness  
(identification of the image cat with the word cast to oneself)

and 3p = Thirdness (expression of cat to others)


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]



Peirce
Peirce, being a pragmatist, described perception according to what  
happened

at each stage,1/18/2013
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen
- Receiving the following content -
From: Russell Standish
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2013-01-17, 17:17:11
Subject: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland


Hi John,

My suspicion is that Roger is so keen to impose a Piercean triadic
view on things that he has omitted to make the necessary connection
with the normal meaning of 1p/3p as standing for subjective/objective.

Cheers

On Tue, Jan 15, 2013 at 04:55:17PM -0500, John Mikes wrote:

Russell,
I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my  
hand about
objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are  
'us' and
cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby  
1904, who -

maybe? - got it what 2p was.
My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may
communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p
communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and  
reformed
into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I  
'read' or
'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p  
mindset.

No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance?
John Mikes

On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:

Hi Russell Standish

2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses  
synthetic

logic.

It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.

The following equivalences should hold between comp
and Peirce's logical categories:

3p = Thirdness or III
2p = Secondness or II
1p = Firstness or I.

Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
So .

Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:

http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html


Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
positively and without reference to anything else.

Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
with respect to a second but regardless of any third.

Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
(A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)



Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness  
that

relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


--



Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au



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Visiting

Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-20 Thread meekerdb

On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the words. 


That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract 
computations.

Brent

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Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-20 Thread Roger Clough
Hi meekerdb 

All computations are abstract.


- Receiving the following content - 
From: meekerdb 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 14:44:33
Subject: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland


On 1/20/2013 3:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
I agree. It is always better to stick to the most common sense of the words. 

That's funny coming from a guy who used God to designate abstract 
computations.

Brent

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Re: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-18 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Russell Standish

Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, positively and 
without reference to anything else.  
Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, with respect to 
a second but regardless of any third.  
Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, in bringing a 
second and third into relation to each other.

I believe 1p is Firstness (raw experience of cat) + Secondness (identification 
of the image cat with the word cast to oneself)
and 3p = Thirdness (expression of cat to others) 


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
 


Peirce 
Peirce, being a pragmatist, described perception according to what happened
at each stage,1/18/2013  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen 
- Receiving the following content -  
From: Russell Standish  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2013-01-17, 17:17:11 
Subject: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland 


Hi John, 

My suspicion is that Roger is so keen to impose a Piercean triadic 
view on things that he has omitted to make the necessary connection 
with the normal meaning of 1p/3p as standing for subjective/objective. 

Cheers 

On Tue, Jan 15, 2013 at 04:55:17PM -0500, John Mikes wrote: 
 Russell, 
 I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my hand about 
 objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are 'us' and 
 cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby 1904, who - 
 maybe? - got it what 2p was. 
 My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may 
 communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p 
 communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and reformed 
 into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I 'read' or 
 'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p mindset. 
 No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance? 
 John Mikes 
  
 On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish wrote: 
  
  On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote: 
   Hi Russell Standish 
   
   2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses synthetic 
  logic. 
   It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however. 
   
   The following equivalences should hold between comp 
   and Peirce's logical categories: 
   
   3p = Thirdness or III 
   2p = Secondness or II 
   1p = Firstness or I. 
   
   Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic, 
   while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic 
   logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part. 
   So . 
   
   Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes: 
   
   http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html 
   
   
   Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
   positively and without reference to anything else. 
   
   Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
   with respect to a second but regardless of any third. 
   
   Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
   in bringing a second and third into relation to each other. 
   (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904) 
   
  
  Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I 
  cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that 
  relate to subjectivity and objectivity. 
  
  As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be. 
  
  
  -- 
  
  
  
   
  Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) 
  Principal, High Performance Coders 
  Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au 
  University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au 
  
  
   
  
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Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au 
University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au

Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-18 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Dec 27, 2012 at 6:21 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net wrote:

  we cannot do without 1p and 2p


Especially 2p, most posts on this topic contain a extraordinary large
amount of pee pee.

  John K Clark

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Re: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-18 Thread Craig Weinberg
I First person singular 
We First person plural 
You Second person singular / second person plural 
He Third person masculine singular 
She Third person feminine singular 
It Third person neutral singular 
They Third person plural / third person gender-neutral singular

On Friday, January 18, 2013 7:29:43 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:

 Hi Russell Standish 

 Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, positively 
 and without reference to anything else.   
 Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, with 
 respect to a second but regardless of any third.   
 Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, in bringing 
 a second and third into relation to each other. 

 I believe 1p is Firstness (raw experience of cat) + Secondness 
 (identification of the image cat with the word cast to oneself) 
 and 3p = Thirdness (expression of cat to others) 


All of these are 1p. To get to 3p you would have to talk about things like 
the volume or composition of the cat's body.

Craig 



 [Roger Clough], [rcl...@verizon.net javascript:] 
   


 Peirce 
 Peirce, being a pragmatist, described perception according to what 
 happened 
 at each stage,1/18/2013   
 Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen 
 - Receiving the following content -   
 From: Russell Standish   
 Receiver: everything-list   
 Time: 2013-01-17, 17:17:11 
 Subject: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland 


 Hi John, 

 My suspicion is that Roger is so keen to impose a Piercean triadic 
 view on things that he has omitted to make the necessary connection 
 with the normal meaning of 1p/3p as standing for subjective/objective. 

 Cheers 

 On Tue, Jan 15, 2013 at 04:55:17PM -0500, John Mikes wrote: 
  Russell, 
  I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my hand 
 about 
  objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are 'us' and 
  cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby 1904, 
 who - 
  maybe? - got it what 2p was. 
  My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may 
  communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p 
  communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and reformed 
  into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I 'read' or 
  'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p 
 mindset. 
  No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance? 
  John Mikes 

  On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish wrote: 

   On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote: 
Hi Russell Standish 

2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses 
 synthetic 
   logic. 
It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however. 

The following equivalences should hold between comp 
and Peirce's logical categories: 

3p = Thirdness or III 
2p = Secondness or II 
1p = Firstness or I. 

Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic, 
while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic 
logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part. 
So . 

Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes: 

http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html 


Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
positively and without reference to anything else. 

Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
with respect to a second but regardless of any third. 

Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
in bringing a second and third into relation to each other. 
(A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904) 

   
   Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I 
   cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that 
   relate to subjectivity and objectivity. 
   
   As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be. 
   
   
   -- 
   
   
   
  

   Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) 
   Principal, High Performance Coders 
   Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpc...@hpcoders.com.au javascript: 
   University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au 
   
   
  

   
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Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-17 Thread Russell Standish
Hi John,

My suspicion is that Roger is so keen to impose a Piercean triadic
view on things that he has omitted to make the necessary connection
with the normal meaning of 1p/3p as standing for subjective/objective.

Cheers

On Tue, Jan 15, 2013 at 04:55:17PM -0500, John Mikes wrote:
 Russell,
 I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my hand about
 objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are 'us' and
 cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby 1904, who -
 maybe? - got it what 2p was.
 My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may
 communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p
 communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and reformed
 into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I 'read' or
 'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p mindset.
 No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance?
 John Mikes
 
 On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish 
 li...@hpcoders.com.auwrote:
 
  On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
   Hi Russell Standish
  
   2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses synthetic
  logic.
   It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.
  
   The following equivalences should hold between comp
   and Peirce's logical categories:
  
   3p = Thirdness or III
   2p = Secondness or II
   1p = Firstness or I.
  
   Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
   while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
   logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
   So .
  
   Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:
  
   http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html
  
  
   Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
   positively and without reference to anything else.
  
   Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
   with respect to a second but regardless of any third.
  
   Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
   in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
   (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)
  
 
  Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
  cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
  relate to subjectivity and objectivity.
 
  As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.
 
 
  --
 
 
  
  Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
  Principal, High Performance Coders
  Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
  University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au
 
  
 
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University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2013-01-15 Thread John Mikes
Russell,
I reflect after a long-long time to your post. I had a war on my hand about
objective and subjective, fighting for the latter, since we are 'us' and
cannot be 'them'. I never elevated to the mindset of Lady Welby 1904, who -
maybe? - got it what 2p was.
My vocabulary allows me to consider what I consider (=1p) and I may
communicat it (still 1p) to anybody else, who receives it as a 3p
communication and acknowledges it into HIS 1p way adjusted and reformed
into it. There is no other situation I can figure. Whatever I 'read' or
'hear' is 3p for me and I do the above to it to get it into my 1p mindset.
No 2p to my knowledge. Could you improve upon my ignorance?
John Mikes

On Sat, Dec 29, 2012 at 1:21 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.auwrote:

 On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
  Hi Russell Standish
 
  2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses synthetic
 logic.
  It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.
 
  The following equivalences should hold between comp
  and Peirce's logical categories:
 
  3p = Thirdness or III
  2p = Secondness or II
  1p = Firstness or I.
 
  Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
  while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
  logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
  So .
 
  Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:
 
  http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html
 
 
  Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
  positively and without reference to anything else.
 
  Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
  with respect to a second but regardless of any third.
 
  Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
  in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
  (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)
 

 Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
 cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
 relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

 As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-29 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Russell Standish 

2p is clearly needed for perception, as explained by Peirce.

[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/29/2012 
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen
- Receiving the following content - 
From: Russell Standish 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-12-29, 01:21:53
Subject: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland


On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
 Hi Russell Standish 
 
 2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses synthetic logic.
 It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.
 
 The following equivalences should hold between comp
 and Peirce's logical categories:
 
 3p = Thirdness or III
 2p = Secondness or II
 1p = Firstness or I.
 
 Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
 while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
 logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
 So .
 
 Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:
 
 http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html
 
 
 Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 positively and without reference to anything else. 
 
 Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 with respect to a second but regardless of any third. 
 
 Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 in bringing a second and third into relation to each other. 
 (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)
 

Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


-- 


Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2012, at 07:21, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:

Hi Russell Standish

2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses  
synthetic logic.

It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.

The following equivalences should hold between comp
and Peirce's logical categories:

3p = Thirdness or III
2p = Secondness or II
1p = Firstness or I.

Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
So .

Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:

http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html


Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
positively and without reference to anything else.

Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
with respect to a second but regardless of any third.

Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
(A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)



Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.



3p is when we agree that the coffee is too hot.
1p is when we find it tastes very bad.
2p is when your wife ask you to clean the coffee machine.

:)

Bruno








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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2012, at 11:04, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Russell Standish

2p is clearly needed for perception, as explained by Peirce.


That kind of 2p can be explained in term of 3p and 1p. I don't think  
it is fundamental, and we should try to stay as simple as possible. I  
do agree with Peirce, I think, but I find the notion of 2p quite non  
pedagogical, and also unrelated to the use of the you, that is the  
grammatical 2p, where on the contrary 1p and 3p refers easily to  
grammar.


But that's only my opinion, and it concerns only pedagogy,

Bruno





[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/29/2012
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen
- Receiving the following content -
From: Russell Standish
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2012-12-29, 01:21:53
Subject: Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
 Hi Russell Standish

 2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses  
synthetic logic.

 It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.

 The following equivalences should hold between comp
 and Peirce's logical categories:

 3p = Thirdness or III
 2p = Secondness or II
 1p = Firstness or I.

 Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
 while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
 logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
 So .

 Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:

 http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html


 Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
 positively and without reference to anything else.

 Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
 with respect to a second but regardless of any third.

 Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is,
 in bringing a second and third into relation to each other.
 (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)


Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


--


Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2012 4:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



3p is when we agree that the coffee is too hot.
1p is when we find it tastes very bad.
2p is when your wife ask you to clean the coffee machine. 


So THAT'S why philosophers don't talk about 2p.

Brent

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Re: Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-28 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Dec 28, 2012 at 08:29:52AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
 Hi Russell Standish 
 
 2p should be a necessary part of comp, espcially if it uses synthetic logic.
 It doesn't seem to be needed for deductive logic, however.
 
 The following equivalences should hold between comp
 and Peirce's logical categories:
 
 3p = Thirdness or III
 2p = Secondness or II
 1p = Firstness or I.
 
 Comp seems to only use analytic or deductive logic,
 while Peirce's categories are epistemological (synthetic
 logic) categories, in which secondness is an integral part.
 So .
 
 Here's what Peirce has to say about his categorioes:
 
 http://www.helsinki.fi/science/commens/terms/secondness.html
 
 
 Firstness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 positively and without reference to anything else. 
 
 Secondness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 with respect to a second but regardless of any third. 
 
 Thirdness is the mode of being of that which is such as it is, 
 in bringing a second and third into relation to each other. 
 (A Letter to Lady Welby, CP 8.328, 1904)
 

Thanks for the definition, but how does that relate to 1p and 3p? I
cannot see anything in the definitions of firstness and thirdness that
relate to subjectivity and objectivity.

As I said before, I do not even know what 2p could be.


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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Escaping from the world of 3p Flatland

2012-12-27 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Dec 27, 2012 at 06:21:06AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
 Hi Russell Standish 
 
 Good point. 
 
 You are right, but we cannot do without 1p and 2p
 unless we want to live in Flatland (Thirdness, the publicly 
 available world of 3p logic).  Truths are stated in words,
 so it includes necessary and contingent truths. The p
 levels are depth levels of a Peircean sort (closer to meanings than

What I wanted to get at is why are you claiming this? The 1p and 3p
refer to subjective and objective points of view. There is no
2p. There is also a 1p plural, for shared subjective things. The p
is short for person

I'm not saying these things are unconnected to Peircean semiotics, but
without more elaboration from you as to why you think so, I can't see
the connection. It is certainly not obvious.

 truths, since they are unstated and personal), where 2p is II 
 and 1p is I. I suggest we call them personal meanings
 and leave truths to III.
 
 I hope I can remember that.
 
 [Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
 12/27/2012 
 Forever is a long time, especially near the end. - Woody Allen
 - Receiving the following content - 
 From: Russell Standish 
 Receiver: everything-list 
 Time: 2012-12-26, 20:21:34
 Subject: Re: On the truth of comp --Fw: 1p= pragmatic or experiential truth 
 vs3p = truth by calculation
 
 
 What is the point of redefining 1p and 3p this way?
 
 If you want to do this, you should first show that you recover the
 usual meanings of the terms, otherwise you may as well be speaking gibberish.
 
 
 
 On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 11:33:04AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
  
  Note that 
  
  1p = contingent truth
  
  3p = necessary truth
  
  So the question of whether comp is true or not is
  whether or when or where
  
  1p = 3p
  
  
  
  - Have received the following content - 
  Sender: Roger Clough 
  Receiver: everything-list 
  Time: 2012-12-26, 11:26:27
  Subject: 1p= pragmatic or experiential truth vs 3p = truth by calculation
  
  
  Hi everything-list
  
  
  IMHO that comp iis true or not is equalvalent to the question
  
  
  does 
  
  1p = 3p ?
  
  where 
  
  1p= truth by experience (or actuality) and
  
  3p = truth by description (by theory)
  
  
  
  [Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
  12/26/2012 
  Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen
  
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 Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au
 
 
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Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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