[peirce-l] Re: on continuity and amazing mazes

2006-03-15 Thread Joseph Ransdell



Arnold says:

I would venture to suggest (subject to the better sense of those on 
the list who have greater experince with the MSS than I have) that the notion of 
a Sign contains the concept of a transitive function, making a very strong case 
for what Thomas has said on this subject. Other transitive functions in 
Peirce can be found in Vols III and IV of the CP (see especially 3.562)RE

RESPONSE:

You won't get any objections from 
me on that, Arnold. Let me quote myself (from mydissertation many 
year ago (1966) on CSP's conception of representation):"Peirce 
indicates in several places that he regardsthe nota notae as the generic 
inference principle (see esp. 5.320 and 3.183). [Nota notae est nota rei 
ipsius: the mark of the mark is the mark of the thing itself.] Further, he 
identifies this with the dictum de omni (4.77) [which is in Aristotle], and with 
what De Morgan called the principle of the transitiveness of the copula. 
(2.591-92). The latter is in turn identified with the illative relation 
(3.175), and this, again, is explicitly said to be the "primary and paramount 
semiotic relation." (2.444n1). I suggest, therefore, that all of Peirce's 
statements of the representation relation may thus be taken as so many variant 
expressions of what he understands to be expressed by the nota notae, the dictum 
de omni, the notion of the transitivity of the copula, or the principle of 
illation." (Charles Peirce: The Idea of Representation, 
63)

Joe 
Ransdell
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[peirce-l] Re: on continuity and amazing mazes

2006-03-15 Thread Jerry LR Chandler
Thomas:Your thoughts on the potential relation between Peirce's continuity and mathematical history were fascinating.  I must confess that I am a bit of a skeptic when it comes to the possibility of a sensible relation between logic, any logic, and a philosophy of mathematics.Nonetheless, I remain puzzled by the concept of the "form" of logic, .Should logic be grounded in the logos?  That is, in the sentences of the language?What is it that would trigger the jump to forms?  Roughly speaking, the abstract conceptualization of mental motion from sentences to geometry?I note in passing that Waismann's concept of number as the root of mathematics avoids this particular issue as the concept of "number" already exists in the natural language and does not acquire a sense of geometry in ordinary usage, in ordinary day to day communication.CheersJerryOn Mar 15, 2006, at 1:08 AM, Peirce Discussion Forum digest wrote:Subject: Re: on continuity and amazing mazes From: "Thomas Riese" [EMAIL PROTECTED] Date: Tue, 14 Mar 2006 13:39:29 +0100 X-Message-Number: 2  On Mon, 13 Mar 2006 19:37:14 +0100, Marc Lombardo [EMAIL PROTECTED]   wrote:  Thomas,  If you don't mind my asking, what's wrong with the "nonstandard analysis" approach to illustrating continuum, so long as that approach is VERY nonstandard? I was quite convinced by Hilary Putnam's introduction to "Reasoning and the Logic of Things." Putnam suggests that rather than understanding infinitesimals as deriving from major points, instead we understand all points as themselves infinitesimals and all   infinitesimals as points, such that any infinitesimal point names another infinity of infinitesimals.  It's difficult to express things in a few useful words, Marc, but I'll try.  I know what Hilary Putnam writes. I believe that he extremely   underestimated what a black belt master logician like Peirce can do with these seemingly simplistic, "childish" syllogistic forms.  And it is very important to understand thst Peirce's logic is primarily   focused on "forms". Another master in this way of thinking was the mathematician   Leonhard Euler and in fact Peirce perhaps received his idea for the "cut" from   Euler (in his Letters to a German Princess). John Venn later "amended" this form,   but he misunderstood it completely. Euler wasn't childish. Neither was Peirce.  Euler could work miracles in analysis, but he had no explicit logical   theory. He simply knew what he did. Later then others came, working more or less by rule of thumb and that often landed them in the ditch. They simply did not   know what they were doing. So there was a crisis in mathematics. To save   mathematical logic there had to come Cauchy and Weiertrass, Dedekind and Cantor etc.   Secure foundations were needed.  But that also closed the door to a lot of possibilities.  Peirce found the logic behind what Euler has been doing, I believe. But   now we have "Bourbakism" in mathematics, i.e. set theory as a language, which is by no   means "neutral".  Just an example: in mathematics, if you have discovered an "isomorphism"   you have made a discovery, you have "reduced" things and then you are finished with these   things. They are just simply "the same thing". The equivalence relation is so to speak   the primary mode of _expression_.  Peirce is exactly interested in the relation between isomorphous forms.   His primary relation is the general form of transitivity.  The difference has far reaching, profound implications.  So in nonstandard anylysis as soon as you base things on "point sets",   however generally understood, you have already missed the point (no pun intended) of   Peirce's continuity.  Peirce can represent it in that form (and then mathematical points split   etc), but I don't believe it's possible the other way round.  But what I here say, can be only very loose talk indeed of course. Just to   give you a vague idea what I mean.  Cheers, Thomas.  Jerry LR ChandlerResearch ProfessorKrasnow Institute for Advanced StudyGeorge Mason University 
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