msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Joel Sogol
Case of fully veiled woman roils France 
Dissenting voices are wondering whether France went too far in denying
citizenship to a  Muslim woman who sheaths herself in a head-to-toe veil,
saying she had not assimilated into society.

http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/25707374/from/ET/ 

 

 

Joel L. Sogol

Attorney at Law

811 21st Avenue

Tuscaloosa, Alabama  35401

ph (205) 345-0966

fx  (205) 345-0967

[EMAIL PROTECTED]

 

Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight -- which is why we have
evidence rules in U.S. courts.

 

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Re: msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Vance R. Koven
What interests me in the story is the statement--about which nobody seems to
have commented--that the woman professed no knowledge of the personal
freedoms French law grants to women and all individuals. Having no knowledge
of French immigration law, and precious little of US immigration law, I
would have expected this to be the handle for denying citizenship, namely
that she had not sufficiently familiarized herself with the fundamental laws
of the country. Whether or not she chooses to avail herself of these
liberties is a different matter; but one should know what the options are.

Vance

On Thu, Jul 17, 2008 at 5:20 AM, Joel Sogol [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Case of fully veiled woman roils France
 Dissenting voices are wondering whether France went too far in denying
 citizenship to a  Muslim woman who sheaths herself in a head-to-toe veil,
 saying she had not assimilated into society.

 http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/25707374/from/ET/





 Joel L. Sogol

 Attorney at Law

 811 21st Avenue

 Tuscaloosa, Alabama  35401

 ph (205) 345-0966

 fx  (205) 345-0967

 [EMAIL PROTECTED]



 Ben Franklin observed that truth wins a fair fight -- which is why we have
 evidence rules in U.S. courts.



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-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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RE: msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Judith Baer
The case started quietly, when a Muslim woman who sheaths herself in a
head-to-toe veil was denied French citizenship because she had not
assimilated enough into this society. 
 
You know what this reminds me of? Frankfurter's explanation to FDR  ER of
his vote in GOBITIS--in a melting pot, people should give up their quaint
idiosyncratic customs (like not saluting the flag) and blend in. See Max
Freedmen, ed. ROOSEVELT-FRANKFURTER LETTERS.
 
Judy Baer
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RE: msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Paul Finkelman
True enough, but France is not the US.  Their traditions and culture are really 
quite different.  Naturalization in France has always required that one becomes 
French whereas in the US we have only required knowledge (a test) and an 
oath.  You can still be something else. That is why Frankfurter's opinions in 
Gobitis and Barnette are so awful.

Paul Finkelman
President William McKinley Distinguished Professor of Law
 and Public Policy
Albany Law School
80 New Scotland Avenue
Albany, New York   12208-3494

518-445-3386 
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

 Judith Baer [EMAIL PROTECTED] 7/17/2008 11:29 AM 
The case started quietly, when a Muslim woman who sheaths herself in a
head-to-toe veil was denied French citizenship because she had not
assimilated enough into this society. 
 
You know what this reminds me of? Frankfurter's explanation to FDR  ER of
his vote in GOBITIS--in a melting pot, people should give up their quaint
idiosyncratic customs (like not saluting the flag) and blend in. See Max
Freedmen, ed. ROOSEVELT-FRANKFURTER LETTERS.
 
Judy Baer

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RE: msnbc.com: Case of fully veiled woman roils France

2008-07-17 Thread Judith Baer
True enough, but France is not the US.  Their traditions and culture are
really quite different.  Naturalization in France has always required that
one becomes French whereas in the US we have only required knowledge (a
test) and an oath.  You can still be something else. That is why
Frankfurter's opinions in Gobitis and Barnette are so awful.

Paul Finkelman

Not the only reason, Paul. What I object to is his hypocrisy (and his
sanctimonious tone in Barnette.) FF was trying to have it both ways, hinting
that his heart was with the liberals and appeasing advocates of judicial
restraint. And all along he thought that what the school boards did was not
only constitutional; it was right. 

Judy

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RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Volokh, Eugene
I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements
 
 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an 
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a 
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the 
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally 
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it 
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony 
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant 
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult 
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract); 
 this may well be right.  
  
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's 
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate 
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement 
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an 
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an 
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL 
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less 
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious 
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is 
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious 
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make 
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at 
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .
 
 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible 
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including 
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular 
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious 
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to 
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the 
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't 
 require any determination of religious truth or religious 
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision 
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the 
 Free Exercise Clause?
 
 Eugene
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RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Douglas Laycock


The New Jersey court surely has the better of this argument.  The Supreme 
Court's decision in Jones v. Wolf rests on the view that of course the courts 
can enforce contracts that implement underlying religious practices, so long as 
the contracts are written in secular language.  . 

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
 argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
 other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
 Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
 that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
 'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
 for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

 Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio[1]-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract);
 this may well be right.

 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf[2] .

 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't
 require any determination of religious truth or religious
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the
 Free Exercise Clause?

 Eugene
 ___
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Douglas Laycock
Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
University of Michigan Law School
625 S. State St.
Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
  734-647-9713

Links:
--
[1] http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio
[2] http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf
[3] http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw
[4] http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw___
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Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Marc Stern
I am travelling and don,t have the citation but the new york court of appeals 
held the ketubah is enforceable. The ketubah is the jewish eqiuvalent of the 
islamic mahr(indeed the word mahr has a hebrew equivalent mohar_a word used in 
the bible in exodus 21
Marc stern

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:20:05 2008
Subject: RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements
 
 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an 
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a 
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the 
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally 
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it 
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony 
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant 
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult 
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract); 
 this may well be right.  
  
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's 
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate 
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement 
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an 
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an 
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL 
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less 
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious 
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is 
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious 
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make 
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at 
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .
 
 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible 
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including 
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular 
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious 
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to 
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the 
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't 
 require any determination of religious truth or religious 
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision 
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the 
 Free Exercise Clause?
 
 Eugene
 ___
 To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu To 
 subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see 
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 messages that are posted; people can read the Web archives; 
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 messages to others.
 
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Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Marc Stern
I jusr remembered that the case I refered to is avitzur v avitzur
Marc

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:37:15 2008
Subject: Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I am travelling and don,t have the citation but the new york court of appeals 
held the ketubah is enforceable. The ketubah is the jewish eqiuvalent of the 
islamic mahr(indeed the word mahr has a hebrew equivalent mohar_a word used in 
the bible in exodus 21
Marc stern

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:20:05 2008
Subject: RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract);
 this may well be right. 
 
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .

 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't
 require any determination of religious truth or religious
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the
 Free Exercise Clause?

 Eugene
 ___
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 messages to others.

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