Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-18 Thread Vance R. Koven
I think it is quite arguable that because the mahr *is* rooted in religious
practice with which both parties were intimately familiar, the court should
go beyond the short notice to see if the parties clearly understood that
there would be one, what it consisted of, and what the sum was to be. In
this case, the court recites that they had not agreed the sum, but did their
negotiation before the imam.  This is just the commercial bit, and there's
no reason to think that you need a lawyer to haggle over the price. Just
having the paperwork show up at the last second shouldn't bar enforcement or
invoke Ohio public policy if it merely memorialized an agreement the parties
had made--even implicitly--at an earlier time. There should have been
evidence permitted on what the parties both understood would be the
situation.

I suspect that Ohio public policy on prenups is grounded on the proposition
that the parties are too emotionally involved to reflect coolly on the
terms. In an arranged marriage this presumption is manifestly unjustified.

Vance

On Thu, Jul 17, 2008 at 5:50 PM, Marc Stern [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  I jusr remembered that the case I refered to is avitzur v avitzur
 Marc

 - Original Message -
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:37:15 2008
 Subject: Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 I am travelling and don,t have the citation but the new york court of
 appeals held the ketubah is enforceable. The ketubah is the jewish
 eqiuvalent of the islamic mahr(indeed the word mahr has a hebrew equivalent
 mohar_a word used in the bible in exodus 21
 Marc stern

 - Original Message -
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:20:05 2008
 Subject: RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
 argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
 other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
 Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
 that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
 'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
 for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

 Eugene

  -Original Message-
  From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
  [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED][EMAIL PROTECTED]]
 On Behalf Of
  Volokh, Eugene
  Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
  To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
  Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements
 
  Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an
  arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a
  mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the
  event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
  (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
  3473.pdf)
  held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally
  applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it
  was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony
  and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant
  hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
  and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult
  with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract);
  this may well be right.
 
  What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's
  alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate
  court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement
  of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an
  agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an
  unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL
  2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less
  like a religious act than the participation in a religious
  divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is
  rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious
  act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make
  the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at
  http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .
 
  Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible
  to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including
  those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular
  behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious
  practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to
  people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the
  contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't
  require any determination of religious truth or religious
  law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision
  of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the
  Free Exercise Clause?
 
  Eugene

RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Volokh, Eugene
I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements
 
 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an 
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a 
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the 
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally 
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it 
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony 
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant 
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult 
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract); 
 this may well be right.  
  
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's 
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate 
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement 
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an 
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an 
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL 
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less 
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious 
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is 
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious 
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make 
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at 
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .
 
 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible 
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including 
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular 
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious 
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to 
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the 
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't 
 require any determination of religious truth or religious 
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision 
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the 
 Free Exercise Clause?
 
 Eugene
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RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Douglas Laycock


The New Jersey court surely has the better of this argument.  The Supreme 
Court's decision in Jones v. Wolf rests on the view that of course the courts 
can enforce contracts that implement underlying religious practices, so long as 
the contracts are written in secular language.  . 

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
 argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
 other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
 Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
 that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
 'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
 for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

 Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio[1]-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract);
 this may well be right.

 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf[2] .

 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't
 require any determination of religious truth or religious
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the
 Free Exercise Clause?

 Eugene
 ___
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Douglas Laycock
Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
University of Michigan Law School
625 S. State St.
Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
  734-647-9713

Links:
--
[1] http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio
[2] http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf
[3] http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw
[4] http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw___
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Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Marc Stern
I am travelling and don,t have the citation but the new york court of appeals 
held the ketubah is enforceable. The ketubah is the jewish eqiuvalent of the 
islamic mahr(indeed the word mahr has a hebrew equivalent mohar_a word used in 
the bible in exodus 21
Marc stern

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:20:05 2008
Subject: RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements
 
 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an 
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a 
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the 
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally 
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it 
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony 
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant 
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult 
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract); 
 this may well be right.  
  
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's 
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate 
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement 
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an 
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an 
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL 
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less 
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious 
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is 
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious 
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make 
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at 
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .
 
 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible 
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including 
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular 
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious 
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to 
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the 
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't 
 require any determination of religious truth or religious 
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision 
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the 
 Free Exercise Clause?
 
 Eugene
 ___
 To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu To 
 subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see 
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 Please note that messages sent to this large list cannot be 
 viewed as private.  Anyone can subscribe to the list and read 
 messages that are posted; people can read the Web archives; 
 and list members can (rightly or wrongly) forward the 
 messages to others.
 
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Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

2008-07-17 Thread Marc Stern
I jusr remembered that the case I refered to is avitzur v avitzur
Marc

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:37:15 2008
Subject: Re: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I am travelling and don,t have the citation but the new york court of appeals 
held the ketubah is enforceable. The ketubah is the jewish eqiuvalent of the 
islamic mahr(indeed the word mahr has a hebrew equivalent mohar_a word used in 
the bible in exodus 21
Marc stern

- Original Message -
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Sent: Thu Jul 17 17:20:05 2008
Subject: RE: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

I should note, by the way, that a similar First Amendment
argument has been raised against the enforceability of mahrs in some
other cases.  I've only seen it squarely confronted in one other case,
Odatalla v. Odatalla, 810 A.2d 93 (N.J. Super. Ch. 2002), which held
that a mahr may be enforced so long as it can be enforced based upon
'neutral principles of law' and not on religious policy or theories,
for instance if it simply and expressly calls for a money payment.

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
 Volokh, Eugene
 Sent: Thursday, July 17, 2008 2:13 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Judicial enforcement of Islamic dowry-on-divorce agreements

 Mohammed Zawahiri and Raghad Z. Alwattar were married, in an
 arranged marriage.  The day of the wedding, Zawahiri signed a
 mahr under which he promised to pay his wife $25,000 in the
 event of divorce.  A few days ago, the Ohio Court of Appeals
 (http://www.sconet.state.oh.us/rod/docs/pdf/10/2008/2008-ohio-
 3473.pdf)
 held that the agreement was unenforceable under generally
 applicable Ohio prenuptial agreement law (chiefly because it
 was presented a very short time before the wedding ceremony
 and postponement of the ceremony would cause significant
 hardship, embarrassment, or emotional stress,
 and because Zawahiri did not have the opportunity to consult
 with an attorney prior to signing the marriage contract);
 this may well be right. 
 
 What particularly interests me, though, is the trial court's
 alternative basis for its decision, on which the appellate
 court didn't opine:  The First Amendment barred enforcement
 of a mahr -- just as it would bar the enforcement of an
 agreement to give a Jewish religious divorce (citing an
 unpublished Ohio decision, Steinberg v. Steinberg, 1982 WL
 2446 (Ohio. App.)).  Though the mahr requirement seems less
 like a religious act than the participation in a religious
 divorce ceremony, because the obligation to pay $25,000 is
 rooted in a religious practice, it is similarly a religious
 act and a court therefore can't order the husband to make
 the payment.  I've put the trial court decision online at
 http://volokh.com/files/zawahiri.pdf .

 Could that be right?  Is it even constitutionally permissible
 to categorically refuse to enforce all contracts -- including
 those that call for what would otherwise be seen as secular
 behavior -- because they are rooted in a religious
 practice?  Or would such a denial of civil court access to
 people who seek enforcement of contracts, simply because the
 contracts are rooted in a religious practice (and don't
 require any determination of religious truth or religious
 law, coercion of inherently religious conduct, or supervision
 of religious institutions or rituals), itself violate the
 Free Exercise Clause?

 Eugene
 ___
 To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu To
 subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see
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 Please note that messages sent to this large list cannot be
 viewed as private.  Anyone can subscribe to the list and read
 messages that are posted; people can read the Web archives;
 and list members can (rightly or wrongly) forward the
 messages to others.

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